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Information about Microsoft MS-700 Exam

  • Vendor: Microsoft
  • Exam Code: MS-700
  • Exam Name: Microsoft Managing Microsoft Teams
  • Certification: Role-based
  • Total Questions: 134 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Microsoft AZ-400 exam dumps questions and answers from Lead4pass

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Information about Microsoft AZ-400 Exam

  • Vendor: Microsoft
  • Exam Code: AZ-400
  • Exam Name: Microsoft Designing and Implementing Microsoft DevOps Solutions
  • Certification: Role-based
  • Total Questions: 293 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Microsoft AZ-303 exam dumps questions and answers from Lead4pass

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  • Vendor: Microsoft
  • Exam Code: AZ-303
  • Exam Name: Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies
  • Certification: Role-based
  • Total Questions: 447 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Microsoft AZ-104 exam dumps questions and answers from Lead4pass

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Table Of Content

  1. Microsoft AZ-104 exam preparation method
  2. About Microsoft AZ-104 Exam
  3. Microsoft AZ-104 exam dumps in 3 formats
  4. Microsoft exam discount code

Correct Microsoft AZ-104 exam preparation method

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Information about Microsoft AZ-104 Exam

  • Vendor: Microsoft
  • Exam Code: AZ-104
  • Exam Name: Microsoft Azure Administrator
  • Certification: Role-based
  • Total Questions: 433 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: AZ-900
Exam Name: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Certification: Fundamentals
Total Questions: 269 Q&A
Exam Language: English

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QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant that contains 1,000 users.
A user recently sent an email message that was never received by a recipient on the internet.
From the Exchange admin center, you successfully run a message trace but cannot see the message in the trace.
What is the most likely reason why the message fails to appear in the message trace?
A. The user addressed the message to multiple internal and external recipients.
B. The message is in the user\\’s Outbox folder.
C. Your administrative user account requires additional rights.
D. The user encrypted the email message.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200 mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a syntax that uses the first letter of
each user\\’s last name, followed by the user\\’s first name, and then @fabrikam.com.
Solution: You convert all the mailboxes to shared mailboxes, and then you run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the
-EmailAddressPolicyEnabled $false parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Email address policies define the rules that create email addresses for recipients in your Exchange organization.
The basic components of an email address policy are:
Email address templates: Define the email address format for the recipients (for example
@contoso.com or [email protected]). Recipient filter: Specifies the recipients whose email addresses are configured by
the policy.
Priority: Specifies the order to apply the email address policies (important if a recipient is identified by
more than one policy).
The EmailAddressPolicyEnabled parameter specifies whether to apply email address policies to this recipient. Valid
values are $true: Email address policies are applied to this recipient. This is the default value.
$false: Email address policies aren\\’t applied to this recipient.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/email-addresspolicies?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 3
You have a hybrid deployment between a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant and an on-premises Exchange Server
2019 organization.
The tenant uses an email domain named @contoso.com.
You recently purchased an email domain named fabrikam.com.
You need to ensure that all the users in the tenant can receive email messages by using the @fabrikam.com email
domain. The solution must ensure that the users can continue to receive an email by using the @contoso.com email
domain.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From Azure AD Connect, add a domain for fabrikam.com.
B. From the on-premises Exchange admin center, modify the email address policy.
C. From the on-premises Exchange admin center, add an accepted domain for fabrikam.com.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, verify the fabrikam.com email domain.
E. From the Exchange Management Shell, create a script that runs the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
F. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, add the fabrikam.com email domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
You must preview HelpDeskUser1 from repeating the same mistake.
You need to identify which management role provided HelpDeskUser1 with the necessary permissions to make the
mistake identified in the problem statement.
Which two cmdlets should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Get-ManagementRoleEntry
B. Get-RoleGroupMember
C. Get-ManagementRole
D. Get-MangementRoleAssignment
E. Get-RoleGroup
Correct Answer: AD
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/exchange/find-exchange-cmdlet-permissions?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
A compliance manager plans to create retention policies for the mailboxes of executive users. The policies will move
specific emails to an archive mailbox.
You need to create an archive mailbox for each executive user.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
B. Enable In-Place Archiving for each mailbox.
C. Enable mailbox journaling.
D. Run the New-Mailbox cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/enable-archive-mailboxes?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant named contoso.com.
You create a partnership with two other companies named fabrikam.com and wingtiptoys.com. All the mailboxes of
fabrikam.com are hosted in Microsoft 365. All the mailboxes of wingtiptoys.com are hosted in an on-premises
Exchange
Server 2019 organization.
You need to ensure that all the email messages sent from contoso.com to fabrikam.com and wingtiptoys.com is
encrypted by using TLS.
What should you do?
A. Create an organizational relationship.
B. Create two remote domains.
C. Configure two mail flow rules.
D. Run the Office 365 Exchange Hybrid Configuration wizard.
E. Configure one connector.
Correct Answer: E
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow-best-practices/use-connectors-to-configure-mail-flow/set-upconnectors-for-secure-mail-flow-with-a-partner

QUESTION 7
You have 1,000 user accounts that are each licensed for Microsoft 365. Each user account has a Microsoft Exchange
Online mailbox.
Ten of the user accounts are configured as service accounts for applications. The applications send event notifications
to the mailboxes of the service accounts by using SMTP. The developers of each application have delegated access to
the mailbox of their respective applications. You need to ensure that all the event notifications sent by the applications
are retained in the service account mailboxes so that new developers can review older notifications. The developers
must be able to view only the notifications for their
respective applications. What should you do?
A. Replace the service account mailboxes with a single user mailbox that contains a folder for each application.
B. Replace the service account mailboxes with a single user mailbox that contains Power Automate rules.
C. Convert the service account mailboxes into shared mailboxes.
D. Convert the service account mailboxes into mail-enabled users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
Your company named ADatum Corporation has a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription that contains the sharing
policies are shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-203 practice test q8

ADatum does business with the partner companies shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-203 practice test q8-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-203 practice test q8-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-203 practice test q8-3

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 hybrid deployment.
You plan to migrate mailboxes from the on-premises Exchange organization to Exchange Online. You have the
appropriate permissions to perform the mailbox migrations.
You need to prepare the environment for the planned migration.
What should you do?
A. Enable the MRSProxy service on an on-premises Exchange server.
B. Install the Hybrid Agent.
C. Run Get-MigrationBatch -Identity “MyMigrationBatch”.
D. Disable Microsoft Outlook for the web.
Correct Answer: A
Mailbox replication service (MRS) proxy is used for cross-forest mailbox move and remote move migration between on-premise exchange and exchange online (Office 365)
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/hybrid-deployment/move-mailboxes

QUESTION 10
You have a hybrid deployment that contains a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant and an on-premises Exchange Server
2019 server named Server1. All users use an email address suffix of @contoso.com.
On Server1, you create a new mailbox that uses the email address of [email protected]
Users hosted in Exchange Online report that they receive a non-delivery report (NDR) when they attempt to send email
messages to [email protected] The NDR contains the following text: “User1 wasn\\’t found at contoso.com.”
You verify that the Exchange Online users can send email successfully to the other mailboxes hosted on Server1. Users
hosted on Server1 can send email to [email protected] successfully.
You need to identify what causes the email delivery to fail. What should you use?
A. the Exchange admin center
B. the on-premises Exchange admin center
C. Azure AD Connect Health
D. the Azure Active Directory admin center
Correct Answer: C
It\\’s likely that the new user account hasn\\’t replicated to Azure Active Directory. Azure AD Connect is responsible for
account replication between on-prem AD and Azure AD.

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200 mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a syntax that uses the first letter of
each user\\’s last name, followed by the user\\’s first name, and then @fabrikam.com.
Solution: You create an email address policy that uses the %1s%[email protected] email address format.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/email-addresspolicies?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment.
All Mailbox servers and domain controllers are on the same site.
You deploy an Edge Transport server.
You need to ensure that all SMTP traffic between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online is routed through
the Edge Transport server.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-203 practice test q12

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant.
You need to import PST files from a legacy archiving solution to Exchange Online. You will import the PST files over the
internet.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-203 practice test q13

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/use-network-upload-to-import-pstfiles?view=o365-worldwide

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QUESTION 1
What does the network MTBF indicate?
A. the speed of the network
B. the reliability of the network
C. the age of the network
D. the cost of the network
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You are designing a WAN implementation to securely connect two remote sites to the corporate office. A public Internet
connection will be used for the connections. Which statement is true in this situation?
A. The connection should be secured using IPsec.
B. The WAN edge devices must support MPLS.
C. The connections support Layer 2 traffic bridging.
D. The service provider can isolate traffic in a private MPLS instance.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which two features would cause latency in a WAN connection? (Choose two.)
A. IPS
B. Syslog
C. telemetry
D. UTM antivirus
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 4
Why would you recommend Junos Space Security Director in a network design?
A. It simplifies Ethernet switch deployments and provides rapid operation of campus and data center networks.
B. It provides the power to quickly design, provision, and deliver MPLS and other Ethernet services.
C. It helps administrators to more quickly and intuitively manage all phases of a security policy life cycle.
D. It provides detection, isolation, and resolution of network faults and incidents.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true about a service-centric data center model? (Choose two.)
A. A service-centric data center model pools compute resources.
B. A service-centric data center model pools storage resources.
C. A service-centric data center model does not pool storage resources.
D. A service-centric data center model does not pool compute resources.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which three steps are part of business continuity planning? (Choose three.)
A. Assess the risks.
B. Know your staff.
C. Know your network.
D. Understand your tools.
E. Test the plan.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 7
You are asked to secure the routing engine of all Junos devices in your design. The design should not affect transit
traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?
A. Use a firewall filter on a revenue port.
B. Use a firewall filter on the loopback interface.
C. Use a firewall filter on the fxp0 interfaces.
D. Use a firewall filter on the management interface.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
What should be included in a network design to improve resiliency?
A. climate control systems
B. redundant power supplies
C. out-of-band management
D. in-band management
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You are in the process of developing a business continuity plan for your network design. You must analyze data about
weather patterns, maintenance history pertaining to leased buildings, and the frequency of power failures. For which
purpose would you collect this information?
A. risk assessment
B. redundancy
C. high availability
D. disaster recovery
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
What are the two main data center profile solution templates? (Choose two.)
A. adaptive
B. transitional
C. high-performance computing
D. enterprise IT
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 11
What are two characteristics of using the Virtual Chassis technology in the aggregation tier of a data center? (Choose
two.)
A. You can fully use all up-links from the access tier.
B. It increases the control-plane complexity.
C. If reduces the control plane complexity.
D. You cannot fully use all up-links from the access tier.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
What are two features used to enable high availability? (Choose two.)
A. VRRP
B. chassis clustering
C. full-duplex mode
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
In a Virtual Chassis Fabric, which two platforms are supported? (Choose two.)
A. EX Series
B. SRX Series
C. MX Series
D. QFX Series
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which command is used to replace the entire current configuration?
A. load replace
B. load set
C. load patch
D. load override
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which command would correctly define a router\\’s host-name?
A. # set ip host-name
B. > set ip host-name
C. # set system host-name
D. > set system host-name
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which keystroke combination allows users to move the cursor to the end of the command line without deleting text?
A. Ctrl + a
B. Ctrl + e
C. Ctrl + w
D. Ctrl + u
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4lead4pass jn0-103 exam questions q4

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct when traffic is received from 10.10.10.4?
A. The traffic is counted and rejected.
B. The traffic only accepted.
C. The traffic is counted and accepted.
D. The traffic is only rejected.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about the longer route-filter match type?
A. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than or equal to the given prefix are considered a match.
B. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer or equal to the given prefix up to a defined acceptable prefix
length is considered a match.
C. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than the given prefix up to a defined acceptable prefix length are
considered a match.
D. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than the given prefix are considered a match.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
You configured the route filter shown in the exhibitlead4pass jn0-103 exam questions q6

In this scenario, which IP addresses would term-One accept?
A. IP addresses that are part of the 172.35.0.0/16 network only.
B. IP addresses that are part of the 172.35.0.0/16 network and IP addresses that are in the 172.35.0.0/16 and
172.36.0.0/16 subnets.
C. IP addresses that are in a subnet of 172.35.0.0/16 network, but not IP addresses that are part of the 172.35.0.0/16
network itself.
D. IP addresses that are part of the 172.35.0.0/16 network and IP addresses that are in subnets of 172.35.0.0/16
network.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
You have configured an SRX Series device for the first time. When you commit your configuration, the Junos OS
notifies you that you cannot yet commit your configuration.
Which configuration step must you complete?
A. date/time
B. root authentication
C. security policies
D. hostname
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic processing?
A. Exception traffic is only handled by the PFE.
B. Exception traffic is rate-limited across the internal link to protect the RE.
C. Exception traffic is not prioritized during times of congestion.
D. Exception traffic is forwarded based on forwarding table entries.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
In dotted-decimal notation, what is the equivalent of 11010101 01000010 01111111 11000010?
A. 213.66.127.194
B. 214.66.128.195
C. 212.64.143.194
D. 213.66.111.194
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A Junos device is configured with multiple routing protocols to the same destination prefix.
By default, which route will be active in the forwarding table?
A. an OSPF route
B. an IS-IS route
C. a BGP route
D. a static route
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
You must apply the family inet configuration parameter only to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces that are in FPC 2. Which output applies to this configuration?
A. [edit groups][email protected]# showge-int {interfaces { {unit 0 {family inet;}}}}
B. [edit groups][email protected]# showge-int {interfaces { {unit 0 {family inet;}}}}
C. [edit groups][email protected]# showge-int {interfaces { {unit 0 {family inet;}}}}
D. [edit groups][email protected]# showge-int {interfaces { {unit 0 {family inet;}}}}
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
You have configured logging to the console port but are uncertain of the impact to the device with troubleshooting. In this scenario, which command would allow you to minimize the impact?
A. set system Syslog console any none
B. set system Syslog log-rotate-frequency 15
C. commit confirmed 1 comment troubleshoot
D. commit synchronize comment troubleshoot
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
When you display the routing table by entering the show route command, what does the * indicate?
A. The route is a direct route.
B. The route was selected as active.
C. The route is a default route.
D. The route was learned using a dynamic routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a68 practice test q1

An administrator logs in to the Guest module in ClearPass and `Manage Accounts\\’ displays as shown.
When a user with username [email protected] attempts to access the Web Login page, what will be the outcome?
A. The user will not be able to access the Web Login page.
B. The user will be able to log in and authenticate successfully but they will be immediately disconnected after.
C. The user will not be able to log in and authenticate.
D. The user will be able to log in for the next 4.9 days, but after this, they will not be able to log in anymore.
E. The user will be able to log in and authenticate successfully, but get a quarantine role after logging in.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A bank would like to deploy ClearPass Guest with web login authentication so that their customers can self-register on
the network to get network access when they have meetings with bank employees. However, they\\’re concerned about
security.
What is true? (Choose three.)
A. If HTTPS is used for the web login page after authentication is completed guest Internet traffic will all be encrypted
as well.
B. During web login authentication, if HTTPS is used for the web login page, guest credentials will be encrypted.
C. After authentication, an IPSEC VPN on the guest\\’s client be used to encrypt Internet traffic.
D. HTTPS should never be used for Web Login Page authentication.
E. If HTTPS is used for the web login page after authentication is completed some guest Internet traffic may be
unencrypted.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3
Why can\\’t the Onguard posture check be done during 802.1x authentication?
A. Onguard uses TACACS so an additional service must be created.
B. 802.1x is already secure so Onguard is not needed.
C. Health Checks can\\’t be used with 802.1x.
D. Onguard uses RADIUS so an additional service must be created.
E. Onguard uses HTTPS so an additional service must be created.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
What can ClearPass use to assign roles to the client during policy service processing? (Choose two.)
A. Through a role mapping policy.
B. From the attributes configures in a Network Access Device.
C. From the server derivation rule in the Aruba Controller server group for the client.
D. From the attributes configured in Active Directory.
E. Roles can be derived from the Aruba Network Access Device.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which needs to be validated for a successful EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2-PSK
B. Username and Password
C. Client Certificate
D. Server Certificate
E. Pre-shared key
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a68 practice test q6

Based on the Authentication sources configuration shown, which statement accurately describes the outcome if the user
is not found?
A. If the user is not found in the local user repository and remote lab AD, a reject message is sent back to the NAD.
B. If the user is not found in the local user repository but is present in the remote lab AD, a reject message is sent back
to the NAD.
C. If the user is not found in the local user repository, a reject message is sent back to the NAD.
D. If the user is not found in the remote lab AD but is present in the local user repository, a reject message is sent back
to the NAD.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which is a valid policy simulation type in ClearPass? (Choose three.)
A. Enforcement Policy
B. Posture token derivation
C. Role Mapping
D. Endpoint Profiler
E. Chained simulation
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
What does a client need for it to perform EAP-PEAP successfully, if `Validate server Certificate\\’ is not enabled?
A. WPA2-PSK
B. Client Certificate
C. Pre-shared key
D. Server Certificate
E. Username and Password
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a68 practice test q9

Which statement accurately describes the cp82 ClearPass node? (Choose two.)
A. It stays as a Subscriber when the Publisher fails.
B. It becomes the Publisher when the primary Publisher fails.
C. It operates as a Publisher in a separate cluster when the Publisher is active.
D. It operates as a Publisher in the same cluster as the primary Publisher when the primary is active.
E. It operates as a Subscriber when the Publisher is active.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a68 practice test q10

When configuring a Web Login Page in Clear Pass Guest, the information shown is displayed.
What is the page name field used for?
A. For Administrators to access the PHP page, but not guests.
B. For forming the Web Login Page URL.
C. For forming the Web Login Page URL where Administrators add guest users.
D. For Administrators to reference the page only.
E. For forming the Web Login Page URL and the page name that guests must configure on their laptop wireless
supplicant.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which authorization servers are supported by ClearPass? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory
B. Cisco Controller
C. Aruba Controller
D. LDAP server
E. Aruba Mobility Access Switch
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which checks are made with Onguard posture evaluation in ClearPass? (Choose three.)
A. Operating System version
B. Peer-to-peer application checks
C. EAP TLS certificate validity
D. Client role check
E. Registry keys
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass hpe6-a68 practice test q13

In the Aruba RADIUS dictionary shown, what is the purpose of the RADIUS attributes?
A. to send information via RADIUS packets to Aruba NADs
B. to gather and send Aruba NAD information to ClearPass
C. to send information via RADIUS packets to clients
D. to gather information about Aruba NADs for ClearPass
E. to send CoA packets from ClearPass to the Aruba NAD
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A high-end theater venue will be implementing an Aruba wireless solution using ceiling- and wall- mounted APs. The
venue wants to ensure the the APs blend into the ceiling and wall environments. What solution should the customer use
to ensure that wireless coverage is not hampered?
A. Place the APs above the ceiling and behind the walls
B. Place a strip of tape over the LEDs
C. Order Aruba AP covers for the APs
D. Paint the APs to match the ceilings or walls
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which feature does the Aruba AP 555 support? (Select two.)
A. 802.11ac and lower standards only
B. desk wall plate mounted
C. three radios
D. weather proof and temperature hardened
E. high density indoor locations
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 3
A customer currently has sets of three Aruba 5406R switches deployed for an access layer in multiple wiring closets in a
building They are clustered in a VSF domain The customer wants to set up Multiple Active Detection (MAD) for the
OOBM port, as well as use this port for remote management access. To simplify the connectivity, the customer wants to
connect these three switches\\’ OOBM ports to a separate switch in the wiring closet for the OOBM connectivity. Which
would be the most cost-effective solution that would meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. 2530
B. 5406R
C. 2930F
D. 2930M
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A network architect wants to estimate the number of Aruba APs that will be needed Tor a new wireless design and
determine the wireless coverage using VisualRF. The company requires a high- density design. The building has
200.000 square feet.
How many APs should the network architect add to VisualRF in order to perform the coverage analysis?
A. 40
B. 80
C. 60
D. 100
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A wiring closet with a POE+ switch is 250 feet (76 meters) away from an AP on a building floor. The AP\\’s smart-rate
port is connected to a smart-rate port on the switch, which is capable of 10 Gbps. The cable type is Cat5e STP.
What is the maximum speed that the customer can expect from the connected AP?
A. 2.5 Gbps
B. 1 Gbps
C. 5 Gbps
D. 10 Gbps
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A network architect imports a floorplan defined in a PNG file format. What is the function of the measurement tool in
Aruba\\’s VisualRF?
A. Define the appropriate dimensions of each object in a Floorplan View
B. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan and Building View
C. Define the appropriate dimensions of a Floorplan View
D. Define the appropriate dimensions of each room in a Floorplan View
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
When determining a customer\\’s agenda and clarifying their expectations for a new HPE/Aruba deployment, which two
questions should be asked during the stakeholder checklist? (Select two.)
A. What business problems are you trying to solve?
B. What is the networking experience of onsite personnel?
C. Which help desk system is deployed?
D. is a request for proposal or actual bill of materials (BOM) required?
E. What is your anticipated growth of the environment?
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 8
Which must you perform in IRIS to assign a device to a Design Group?
A. Right-click the device and select Set Layer Membership
B. Right-click the device and select Set Design Group
C. Drag and drop the device into the Site
D. Drag and drop the device into the Design Group
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
A network architect plans to use two ArubaOS 5406 switches in a wiring closet configured in a VSF domain The VSF
link requires a 40 GDps connection. Which SFP+ transceiver solutions would meet this requirement?
A. QSFP+ LC
B. SFP
C. SmartRate
D. QSFP28
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A company has two buildings on a campus, where each building has three floors, which two wiring closets per floor
Assume that there will be 24 APs connected via POE+ to each wiring closet, along with 128 wired user connections.
Which backplane stacking solution will provide the necessary Ethernet port capacity for all devices on Building 1 Floor 2
and is fully meshed?
A. Two 381 OM 24-port POE+ switches and three 381OM 48-port switches per wiring closet
B. Two 2930F 24-port POE+ switches and three 2930F 48-port switches per wiring closet
C. One 2930M 24-port POE+ switch and two 2930M 48-port switches per wiring closet
D. One 381 OM 24-port POE+ switches and two 2930M 48-port switches per wiring closet
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
A company has a warehouse that requires ruggedized APs to provide wireless access The APs need to support these
characteristics: 2 or more spatial streams
802.11 ac and 802.11 n support
Cat 7 Ethernet cabling will be used to connect the APs to POE+ capable switches Link aggregation should be employed
between the APs and the Ethernet switches.
Which would be the most cost- effective solution that would meet the company\\’s requirements?
A. AP 375 with external omnidirectional antennas
B. AP 365 with integrated omnidirectional antennas
C. AP 318 with external omnidirectional antennas
D. AP 510 with external omnidirectional antennas and plastic AP cover
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which AP mode allows an AP to operate autonomously?
A. IAP
B. AM
C. RAP
D. OCAP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A customer has over 100 access layer switches. The customer requires user authentication done via the Aruba
Dynamic Segmentation feature. What components are required to implement this solution? (Select two.)
A. enterpnse authentication server
B. Aruba APs
C. Aruba mobility controller
D. AirWave server
E. Active Directory server
Correct Answer: CD

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