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LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands is used to rotate, compress, and mail system logs?
A. rotatelog
B. striplog
C. syslogd –rotate
D. logrotate
E. logger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Depending on the host\’s configuration, which of the following files can be used to turn on and off network services running on a host? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /etc/profile
B. /etc/services
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/xinetd.conf
E. /etc/host.conf
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands shows the current color depth of the X Server?
A. xcd
B. xcdepth
C. xwininfo
D. xcolordepth
E. cat /etc/X11
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system? LX0-104 dumps
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the dig command?
A. It can be used as a tool for querying DNS servers.
B. It can be used for searching through indexed file content.
C. It can be used to look for open ports on a system.
D. It can be used to ping all known hosts on the current subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In order to discover the link layer address of the device that owns a specific IPv4 or IPv6 address, which mechanism is used?
A. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use ARP.
B. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use Neighbor Discovery.
C. IPv4 uses ARP while IPv6 uses Neighbor Discovery.
D. IPv4 uses Neighbor Discovery while IPv6 uses ARP.
E. Both IPv4 and IPv6 can use either ARP or Neighbor Discovery depending on the network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? LX0-104 dumps (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To prevent a specific user from scheduling tasks with at, what should the administrator do?
A. Add the specific user to /etc/at.allow file.
B. Add the specific user to [deny] section in the /etc/atd.conf file.
C. Add the specific user to /etc/at.deny file.
D. Add the specific user to nojobs group.
E. Run the following: atd –deny [user].
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
How many bits make up an IPv6 address? LX0-104 dumps
A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which command will set the local machine\’s timezone to UTC?
A. cat UTC andgt; /etc/timezone
B. ln -s /usr/share/zoneinfo/UTC /etc/localtime
C. date –timezone=UTC
D. mv /usr/timezone/UTC /etc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is true regarding public and private SSH keys? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Several different public keys may be generated for the same private key.
B. The private key must never be revealed to anyone.
C. For each user account, there is exactly one key pair that can be used to log into that account.
D. To maintain the private key\’s confidentiality, the SSH key pair must be created by its owner.
E. To allow remote logins, the user\’s private key must be copied to the remote server.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is true regarding the mail queue of a mail server? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The messages in the queue must be readable by all users as the queue may contain messages for several users.
B. According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS) the queue is located at /var/mail/spool.
C. There is exactly one mail queue per user which holds all new messages for that user before they are moved to other folders by the user\’s mail client.
D. The queue holds all messages that are processed by the mail server but have not yet been completely delivered.
E. The content of the mail queue can be queried by the command mailq.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
For accessibility assistance, which of the following programs is an on-screen keyboard?
A. xkb
B. atkb
C. GOK
D. xOSK
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following fields can be found in the /etc/group file? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. The list of users that belong to the group.
B. The home directory of the group.
C. The name of the group.
D. The description of the group.
E. The password of the group.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 23
Given the following routing table
Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 192.168.178.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 9 0 0 wlan0
Why does the command route add default gw 192.168.1.1 fail?
A. Because there is no route to 192.168.1.1.
B. Because only one route can exist at a time.
C. Because there is already a default route.
D. Because default routes can not be set manually.
E. Because default routes must be set with ifconfig.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is observed and corrected by a NTP client? LX0-104 dumps
A. The skew in time between the system clock and the hardware clock.
B. The skew in time between the system clock and the reference clock.
C. Changes in the time zone of the current computer\’s location.
D. Adjustments needed to support Daylight Saving Time.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which command makes the shell variable named VARIABLE visible to subshells?
A. export $VARIABLE
B. export VARIABLE
C. set $VARIABLE
D. set VARIABLE
E. env VARIABLE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do shadow passwords improve the password security in comparison to standard passwd passwords?
A. Shadow passwords are stored in plain text and can be checked for weak passwords.
B. Every shadow password is valid for 45 days and must be changed afterwards.
C. The system\’s host key is used to strongly encrypt all shadow passwords.
D. Shadow passwords are always combined with a public key that has to match the user\’s private key.
E. Regular users do not have access to the password hashes of shadow passwords.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What output will the command seq 10 produce?
A. A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B. The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C. The numbers 0 through 9 with one number per line.
D. The number 10 to standard output.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
What is true regarding the file ~/.forward?
A. As it is owned by the MTA and not writable by the user, it must be edited using the editaliases command.
B. After editing ~/.forward the user must run newaliases to make the mail server aware of the changes.
C. Using ~/.forward, root may configure any email address whereas all other users may configure only their own addresses.
D. When configured correctly, ~/.forward can be used to forward each incoming mail to more than one other recipient.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is NTP?
A. A more secure protocol replacement for FTP.
B. A protocol for synchronizing time on computers.
C. A routing aid for finding next hops on a network.
D. A simple tunnelling protocol for computers behind firewalls.
Correct Answer: B

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[High Quality Citrix Dumps] Latest Lead4ass 1Y0-351 Dumps Citrix CCP-N Exam Files And Youtube Free Shared

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1Y0-351 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address.
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access? 1Y0-351 dumps
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. 1Y0-351 dumps The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site.
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for secured web traffic that does NOT terminate at the NetScaler device.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Source IP
B. Cookie Insert
C. URL Passive
D. SRCIPDESTIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has two sites that host six cache web servers that are used to promote sales information.
Which feature on the NetScaler should an engineer enable to provide faster application performance and also provide additional capacity if the demand increases for one site?
A. Load balancing
B. Integrated Cache
C. Responder Policy
D. Content switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. 1Y0-351 dumps The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps PDF Files And VCE Youtube Demo

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210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?
A. View the alert on the IPS.
B. Review the IPS log.
C. Review the IPS console.
D. Use a third-party system to perform penetration testing.
E. Use a third-party to audit the next-generation firewall rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 6
In the router ospf 200 command, what does the value 200 stand for?
A. process ID
B. area ID
C. administrative distance value
D. ABR ID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the given configuration is true?
A. The single-connection command causes the device to establish one connection for all TACACS transactions.
B. The single-connection command causes the device to process one TACACS request and then move to the next server.
C. The timeout command causes the device to move to the next server after 20 seconds of TACACS inactivity.
D. The router communicates with the NAS on the default port, TCP 1645.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is example of social engineering
A. Gaining access to a building through an unlocked door.
B. something about inserting a random flash drive.
C. gaining access to server room by posing as IT
D. Watching other user put in username and password (something around there)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? 210-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?
A. It can extract and decode email attachments in client to server traffic.
B. It can look up the email sender.
C. It compares known threats to the email sender.
D. It can forward the SMTP traffic to an email filter server.
E. It uses the Traffic Anomaly Detector.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB

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Microsoft will provide smart tabs to Windows 10 app

Microsoft is credited with having established various different certification systems. Each of those certifications is for a specific area of IT expertise. Certifications such as these help establish the knowledge credentials of an IT professionals. The tabs in File Explorer are one of the most popular feature requests for Windows 10. Windows 10 testers will first begin testing what Microsoft calls “kits” in the coming weeks, and label integration will initially be limited to Windows 10’s special purpose generic Windows applications.

A refreshed look inspired by the Fluent Design System. The idea behind the label function is shown in the name. Collections are designed to group specific tasks together. However, Microsoft has some ambitious settings, not just the Windows desktop. Microsoft is planning to extend these tags to standard desktop applications such as File Explorer or Notepad and eventually to applications with custom title bars like Photoshop.
Microsoft
Office’s updated desktop version will be available early next year. Microsoft’s real challenge to the suite will be for developers to embrace them on the move, so applications can easily recover. This is not an easy solution, so I hope this experience was initially limited to Office and Edge Mobile.

Microsoft Edge for iOS and Android brings familiar features like your Favorites, Reading List, New Tab Page, Reading View, and Roaming Passwords across your PC and phone, so, no matter the device, your browsing goes with you. But what makes Microsoft Edge really stand out is the ability to continue on your PC, which enables you to immediately open the page you’re looking at right on your PC—or save it to work on later.
Microsoft
Like the timeline features of Windows 10, these features will be available to testers in the next release. The collection is designed to keep you on the move. By grouping tasks into these settings, Microsoft is working to get iPhone and Android users to launch settings and then recover them on the PC, and vice versa. This is a logical extension of Timeline that groups your applications together in a similar way so that you can recover them from your mobile device and from your PC. The new Performance/Power slider* lets you set the right balance between battery-life longevity and system performance and responsiveness.

The set’s experience also includes the Universal Search feature, and the new blank label is the same as the new label interface in the Microsoft Edge browser. Microsoft has resisted adding tabs to File Explorer and apps in general for years, after originally introducing tabs in Internet Explorer 6 with a toolbar extension back in 2005. That resistance is about to change, in a big way. Microsoft is planning to add tabs to apps in Windows 10, allowing you to group together apps in a better way.

Microsoft Edge can now read web pages, e-books, and other documents out loud to make reading accessible to more people. To hear an e-book or PDF out loud, click or tap anywhere on the page and select the “Read aloud” button from the top-right corner.
Microsoft
Microsoft basically extended Edge to the shell of all applications in Windows 10, a move that will trigger a lot of discussion. Microsoft ended the court with the U.S. Department of Justice in 2001, bundling Internet Explorer directly into Windows. Either way, computing and competition have changed a lot, and without some type of networking capability, the tabbed interface will not work effectively.

Microsoft is planning to open up labels to Windows 10 testers in the coming weeks and the company will initially test a small portion of its testers. The plan is for all Windows 10 testers to get specific feedback before looking through the new tabbed interface.

Reference: https://www.theverge.com/2017/11/28/16709190/microsoft-windows-10-tabs-file-explorer-sets-feature

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Exam Code: 070-489
Total Questions: 97 Q&As
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
You need to resolve the image loading issue.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the size of the site collection object cache to at least 100 MB.
B. Enable the binary large object (BLOB) cache on each front-end web server.
C. Activate the Content Organizer site feature.
D. Enable authenticated cache profiles for the site output cache.
E. Enable publishing features for the site collection.
F. Set the default device channel to the active channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? 070-489 dumps {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
You need to implement caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
You need to add code to line CM07 to create the Research Content document set.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the dropdown list in the answer area.)
070-489 dumps
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to configure filtering for the Product page.
Which filtering option should you use?
A. products/pages/products.aspx?productID=*&.productCategory=*
B. products.aspx;productID;productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
C. products; productID; productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
D. products/pages/products.aspx?*
E. productID;productCategory
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use? 070-489 dumps
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to implement logging.
Which items should you implement? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SPDiagnosticsServiceBase.WriteEvent
B. Microsoft.SharePoint.Diagnostics.ULSLogEntry
C. SPUser.Sid
D. PortalLog.LogString
E. SPAlertTemplate
F. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 12
You need to raise the visibility of the sites.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Reports and Data Search feature for the site collection.
B. Create a custom timer job that generates the SiteMap.xml file in the root directory of the web application.
C. Add a Script Editor Web Part to the landing page of the publishing site. In the web part, enter the location of the SiteMap.xml file.
D. In Internet Information Services (IIS), enable the SiteMap ISAPI filter for the web application.
E. Enable the Search Engine Sitemap Site Collection feature for the site collection.
Correct Answer: E

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[High Quality Microsoft Dumps] Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-414 Dumps Exam Training Materials And Youtube Shared

Prepare for Microsoft 70-414 exam with latest Microsoft MCSE 70-414 dumps pdf training materials and vce youtube demo free update. The best and most Microsoft MCSE 70-414 dumps pdf practice files update free shared. “Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure” is the name of Microsoft MCSE https://www.lead4pass.com/70-414.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. High quality Microsoft MCSE 70-414 dumps exam questions and answers download free try, pass Microsoft 70-414 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 1
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions.
You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso\Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements. 70-414 dumps
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federation servers.
You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers.
Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2012
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You deploy a new standalone server named Server2. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server2.
Another administrator named Admin1 plans to create a replica of VM1 on Server2. You need to ensure that Admin1 can configure Server2 to receive a replica of VM1.
To which group should you add Admin1?
A. Server Operators
B. Domain Admins
C. Hyper-V Administrators
D. Replicator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that are connected to a SAS storage device. The device only supports two connected computers.
Server1 has the iSCSI Target Server role service installed. Ten application servers use their iSCSI Initiator to connect to virtual disks in the SAS storage device via iSCSI targets on Server1.
Currently, Server2 is used only to run backup software.
You install the iSCSI Target Server role service on Server2.
You need to ensure that the iSCSI targets are available if Server1 fails.
Which five actions should you perform?
To answer, move the five appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-414 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1 and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012.
Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin. 70-414 dumps
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A) record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1 and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are connected to a Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (SAN). Server1 and Server2 are members of a failover cluster named Cluster1.
You plan to host the clustered File Server role on the nodes in Cluster1. Cluster1 will store application databases in shared folders. You need to implement a storage solution for Cluster1. The solution must minimize the amount of time the shared folders are unavailable during a failover.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. An iSCSI Target Server cluster role in Cluster1
B. The Multi Path I/O (MPIO) feature on Server1 and Server2
C. A Virtual Fibre Channel SAN on Server1 and Server2
D. A Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) in Cluster1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. A web application named WebApp1 is installed on the 20 servers.
You plan to deploy a custom registry key for WebApp1 on the 20 servers. You need to deploy the registry key to the 20 servers. The solution must ensure that you can verify whether the registry key was applied successfully to the servers.
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From the Group Policy Management console, create a Group Policy object (GPO).
C. From Configuration Manager, create a Compliance Settings.
D. From Orchestrator Runbook Designer, create a runbook.
Correct Answer: C

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[High Quality Microsoft Dumps] High Quality Microsoft 70-694 Dumps PDF Resources And VCE Youtube Update Demo

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Exam Code: 70-694
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
70-694 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are a SharePoint administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
The company has 2,000 employees and 500 external users who work at the offices of various partner companies.
You plan to deploy SharePoint Server 2010 to host an intranet Web site, an extranet Web site, and a public Web site for the company.
You need to recommend a solution to grant partner company employees access to the extranet.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Forms-based authentication and Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS)
B. Forms-based authentication and the Application Layer Gateway Service (ALG)
C. Integrated Windows authentication and Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
D. Integrated Windows authentication and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1) server farm.
You plan to deploy a site for the sales department and a site for the finance department.
You identify the following search requirements for each site:
• Content on the finance site must be indexed once daily.
• Content on the sales site must be indexed every 15 minutes.
• Each site must have independent search keywords and synonyms.
You need to recommend a logical structure to meet the search requirements of each site.
What should you recommend?
A. One site collection, two sites, and two search scopes
B. Two sites collections, two sites, and two search scopes
C. Two sites collections, two sites, and two content sources
D. One site collection, two sites, and two content sources
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are a SharePoint administrator for Blue Yonder Airlines.
You plan to upgrade the Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 server farm to SharePoint Server 2010.
You need to recommend a solution for migrating all PerformancePoint 2007 objects to SharePoint Server 2010.
What should you include in the solution?
A. The Import PerformancePoint Server 2007 Content wizard
B. SharePoint Designer 2010
C. The Import Application Definition File wizard
D. PerformancePoint Dashboard Designer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You need to design a solution to ensure that all Web servers can access their databases if a single database server fails. Your solution must minimize costs.
What should you include in the solution?
A. failover clustering
B. Windows Network Load Balancing
C. hardware load balancing
D. SQL Server log shipping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1) server farm. The farm contains four front-end Web servers, two application servers, and a Microsoft SQL Server failover cluster. 70-694 dumps
You plan to deploy an enterprise monitoring solution for the farm.
You need to recommend a monitoring strategy to meet the following requirements:
• Generate reports that contain hardware utilization data.
• Generate alerts if specific URLs are unavailable.
• Provide a logical layout of the farm topology.
• Minimize cost.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 R3
B. the Unified Logging Service (ULS)
C. Performance Monitor
D. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007 R2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are a SharePoint administrator for Wide World Importers.
You need to recommend a solution to migrate all documents from the partner company to SharePoint-Farm.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Read-only databases
B. Information Rights Management (IRM)
C. Site Collection policies
D. Offline databases
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are planning the search infrastructure for your company.
You need to recommend a search solution to meet the following requirements:
• Users must be able to preview the documents returned in search results.
• Users must be able to refine search results by using custom properties.
• Users must be able to search the content of PDF files.
• The solution must be able to index 1 million documents.
• The solution must minimize upfront software costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Online
B. Microsoft FAST Search Server 2010 for SharePoint
C. Microsoft SharePoint Foundation 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1)
D. Microsoft SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 server farm that contains two servers.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that both servers have a complete copy of the index.
What should you recommend?
A. Add a mirror query component
B. Add a new crawl database
C. Add a new crawl component
D. Add a new query component
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are a SharePoint administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
The company has 2,000 employees and 500 external users who work at the offices of various partner companies.
You plan to deploy SharePoint Server 2010 to host an intranet Web site, an extranet Web site, and a public Web site for the company.
You need to recommend a solution to provide unauthenticated users with the ability to submit content to document libraries on the public Web site.
What should you recommend?
A. an e-mail-enabled document library
B. a Content Organizer rule
C. a new service connection
D. an information management policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are planning the taxonomy of a SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1) server farm.
70-694 dumps You identify the following requirements:
• The legal department will require a list view threshold of 1,000 items.
• The accounting department will require a list view threshold of 2,000 items.
• The manufacturing department will require a list view threshold of 1,000 items.
You need to identify the minimum number of web applications and site collections that must be created to meet the requirements.
How many web applications and site collections should you identify?
A. Three web applications and three site collections
B. One web application and three site collections
C. Two web applications and two site collections
D. One web application and two site collections
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are a SharePoint administrator for Adventure Works.
You plan to deploy SharePoint Server 2010 to improve internal collaboration for the company. You also plan to use SharePoint Server 2010 as the platform for the company’s public Web site.
You need to recommend a solution to convert the catalogs.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Designer
B. InfoPath Forms Services
C. Word Automation Services
D. Access Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are a SharePoint administrator for Tailspin Toys.
The company has a main office. The main office is located in London.
The company has 1,000 employees and 1,000 customers.
You plan to create a product information Web site by using SharePoint technologies named www.tailspintoys.com.
You need to recommend a solution to display the company’s product information on the SharePoint Web site.
What should you include in the solution?
A. The Secure Store Service and the Business Connectivity Services
B. Access Services and the Application Registry Service
C. The User Profile Service and the Business Connectivity Services
D. The Application Registry Service and the Secure Store Service
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Magento Dumps] The Best Magento M70-201 Dumps PDF Materials And VCE Youtube Free Update

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Vendor: Magento
Certifications: Magento Certified Developer Plus
Exam Name: Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam
Exam Code: M70-201
Total Questions: 136 Q&As
Magento dumps
QUESTION 1
In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?
Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default
CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router
Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Standard
Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin
A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default
B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin
C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default
D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Helper
C. Model
D. Resource model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
To implement a standard Adminhtml form for a custom data model, which two of the following must you do? (Choose two)
A. Declare your module’s block class prefix in the config.xml file.
B. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget_Form.
C. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Abstract.
D. Create sub-classes of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Element_Abstract for each form field to be presented.
E. Add a set of configuration values in the module’s config-xml defining the form fields to be displayed.
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 4
Which statement correctly describes order state and order status? M70-201 dumps
A. State and status are independent properties of the order.
B. The status is a child of the state.
C. State represents the general state of the order, while status works on item level.
D. An order doesn’t have a status, only a state. Status is a property of an invoice, shipment, and credit memo.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay () method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. Pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. Capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?
A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered template can be overridden via layout XML.
B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by name.
C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is rendered.
D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template
E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an output block.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following API calls allows you to fetch the list of related products using the native Magento API?
A. catalog_product_link.list, with arguments $type=’related’, $product_id
B. catalog_product.list, with arguments $type=’related’, $product_id
C. catalog_product_related.list, with argument $product_id
D. catalog_product_option.list, with arguments $type=’related’, $product_id
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following actions will enable logging via calls to debugData() on a native Magento payment method model?
A. Set the protected property $_debug of the payment model to true
B. Set the config node default/payment/debug/ [method code] to 1
C. Call Mage::register (‘payment_method_debug_’ . [method code], true);
D. Set the config node default/payment/ [method code]/debug to 1
E. Call setDebug(true) on the payment method model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are creating a custom CMS module named Achme_Cms. Which one of the following is the correct XML required to override a controller from the Mage_Cms module in your Achme_Cms module? M70-201 dumps
M70-201 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two public methods must be implemented in a functional custom shipping method directly extending Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Abstract and also implementing Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Interface? (Choose two)
A. collectRates()
B. getAllowedMethods()
C. isTrackingAvailable()
D. isFixed()
E. getConfigData()
F. checkAvailableShipCountries()
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 11
M70-201 dumps Which of the following is the default setup script class name?
A. Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Setup
B. Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup_Default
C. Mage_Setup_Model_Resource_Default
D. Mage Core Model Resource Setup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You need to implement private sales utilizing Website Restrictions as provided by the Enterprise Edition of Magento, and when customers are not logged in, you want them to be redirected to a landing page. Where in the Magento admin would you find the settings needed for this task?
A. System -> Configuration -> Enterprise -> Website Restrictions
B. System -> Configuration -> General -> Website Restrictions
C. System -> Manage Stores -> Edit Website
D. System -> Permissions -> Website Restrictions
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets? 100-105 dumps
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN.
How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which two advantages of an overlay network that consists of virtual switches on supervisors compare with those of physical networks? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to change the logical network topology more easily.
B. Ability to experience higher performance of traffic forwarding.
C. Overlay networks integrate with virtual machines more closely
D. They can support more routing protocols.
E. They are more secure.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You review a Cisco onePK-based application and you notice that the VTY Service Set is used to collect interface statistics. 200-105 dumps Which recommendation can you make to better leverage the programmatic capabilities of Cisco onePK?
A. Optimize the regular expression syntax.
B. Limit VTY Service Set usage to commands that return less than five lines of output.
C. Collect interface statistics using the native onePK APIs.
D. Always develop onePK-based application in multiple programming languages.
E. Use the Utility Service Set instead of the VTY Service Set.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
What is the minimum package that is required to develop a custom Cisco Unified Intelligence Center report for a Cisco Unified CCX deployment?
A. Cisco Unified CCX Premium
B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced
C. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Premium
D. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Standard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156? 200-105 dumps
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment, operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which option about QoS polices created by Cisco onePK policy service set is true?
A. Polices do not show up in device configuration and persist until the device is reloaded.
B. Policies do not show up in device configuration and are removed when onePK application sessions are disconnected.
C. Policies show up in device configuration and persist until the device is reloaded.
D. Policies show up in device configuration and are removed when onePK application sessions are disconnected.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design? 200-105 dumps
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If the client has equipment from multiple vendors in their network, which statement about the technologies that can be used is true?
A. Cisco onePK is a good candidate because it is vendor agnostic.
B. Cisco onePK is vendor-specific and therefore cannot control all the equipment.
C. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is vendor-specific.
D. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is only for Layer 2 switches.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In the Agile software development process, which two principles align with customer communications? (Choose two.)
A. Software releases are held until quality gates are met.
B. Co-location of business-focused individuals and developers for face-to-face conversation is best.
C. Key developers should have a proxy that intercepts rapidly changing requirements.
D. Customer requirements are fully collected before development ensues.
E. Changing requirements are welcome, even late in development.
Correct Answer: BE

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