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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Exam Code: 70-412
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed.
You attempt to deploy AD RMS.
During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found.
You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Authorization Manager
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
E: Active Directory Rights Management Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. 70-412 dumps The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role in- stalled. All servers run Windows Server 2012.d
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the so- lution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1.
A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1.
When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receive the following error message.
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error message does not appear.
What should you do?
A. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools.
B. Run the regsvr32.exe command.
C. Modify the PATH system variable.
D. Configure the Active Directory Certificate Services server role from Server Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains named east.contoso.com and west.contoso.com. 70-412 dumps
You install an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster in each child domain.
You discover that all of the users in the contoso.com forest are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the users in west.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com and that the users in east.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the west.contoso.com do- main.
C. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the east.contoso.com do- main.
D. Modify the properties of the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Cer- tificate Services server role installed and is configured as an enterprise certification authority (CA).
You need to ensure that all of the users in the domain are issued a certificate that can be used for the following purposes:
Email security
Client authentication
Encrypting File System (EFS)
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Auto-Enrollment settings.
B. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Certificate Enrollment Pol- icy settings.
C. Modify the properties of the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
D. Duplicate the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
E. From a Group Policy, configure the Automatic Certificate Request Settings settings.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
B. Configure the Scope Options.
C. Create a superscope and a filter.
D. Configure the Server Options.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
An administrator installs the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on a server named Server2.
The administrator configures IPAM by using Group Policy based provisioning and starts server discovery.
You plan to create Group Policies for IPAM provisioning.
You need to identify which Group Policy object (GPO) name prefix must be used for IPAM Group Policies.
What should you do on Server2?
A. From Server Manager, review the IPAM overview.
B. Run the ipamgc.exe tool.
C. From Task Scheduler, review the IPAM tasks.
D. Run the Get-IpamConfiguration cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains two DNS servers named DN51 and DNS2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
DNS1 has a primary zone named contoso.com. 70-412 dumps DNS2 has a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
You need to log the zone transfer packets sent between DNS1 and DNS2.
What should you configure?
A. Monitoring from DNS Manager
B. Logging from Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
C. A Data Collector Set (DCS) from Performance Monitor
D. Debug logging from DNS Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Users frequently access the website of an external partner company. The URL of the website is http://partners.adatum.com.
The partner company informs you that it will perform maintenance on its Web server and that the IP addresses of the Web server will change.
After the change is complete, the users on your internal network report that they fail to access the website.
However, some users who work from home report that they can access the website.
You need to ensure that your DNS servers can resolve partners.adatum.com to the correct IP ad- dress immediately.
What should you do?
A. Run dnscmd and specify the CacheLockingPercent parameter.
B. Run Set-DnsServerGlobalQueryBlockList.
C. Run ipconfig and specify the Renew parameter.
D. Run Set-DnsServerCache.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft SharePoint Applications
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
70-480 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are creating a rotating image of a company logo.
The logo must spin on a horizontal axis and on a vertical axis.
You need to use the least amount of development effort to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create an Image Spinner object, load the image into the spinner, and set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
B. Create a Canvas Globe transform and set the image as the globe object. Set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
C. Create a single Canvas 3D transform and load the image into it. Set the rotation properties.
D. Create a Canvas 2D transform and set the image to rotate horizontally and vertically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to resolve the image loading issue.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. 70-480 dumps Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the size of the site collection object cache to at least 100 MB.
B. Enable the binary large object (BLOB) cache on each front-end web server.
C. Activate the Content Organizer site feature.
D. Enable authenticated cache profiles for the site output cache.
E. Enable publishing features for the site collection.
F. Set the default device channel to the active channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Correct Answer: AC
70-480 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers.
Which indexing connector should you use? 70-480 dumps
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You develop an HTML application that is located at www.adventure-works.com. The application must load JSON data from www.fabrikam.com. 70-480 dumps
You need to choose an approach for loading the data.
What should you do?
A. Add a crossdomain.xml file to the second server.
B. Configure Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) on the servers.
C. Load the data in a JavaScript timeout callback.
D. Reference the remote data as an XML resource.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel? 300-135 dumps
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
300-135 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. 300-135 pdf Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead? 300-135 dumps
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. 300-135 dumps Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
Some email messages sent from the trusted domain fabrikam.com are being rejected as spam. Some of these email messages originate inside the fabnkam.com network, and some of them originate from an application in the fabrikam.com co-located data center.
The fabrikam.com systems administrators have asked you to add their domain and the IP addresses of the data center that hosts their external application to your list of safe senders.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a content filter to allow the fabrikam.com domain.
B. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the data center IP address range.
C. Create a connection filter to allow the data center IP address range.D. Add the fabrikam.com domain as an accepted domain.
E. Create an inbound connector for the fabrikam.com domain.
F. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator.
The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. 70-398 pdf
You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your company decides to migrate all users to Office 365.
As part of the migration, Office 365 ProPlus will be installed on all client computers and the company will use Office Telemetry. You need to produce a report that contains the information collected by Office Telemetry. 70-398 dumps
Which three types of information can you include in the report? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Information about files that are not in the Most Recently Used list
B. The names of add-ins and solutions that interact with Office
C. The file names of Office files that are in the Most Recently Used list
D. System information such as user name and computer name
E. The contents of all files that are in the Most Recently Used list
Correct Answer: BCD
70-398
QUESTION 4
You need to identify which business requirement will be met by implementing the planned hardware load balancer.
Which business requirement should you identify?
A. Minimize the hardware costs required for a load balancing solution.
B. Minimize the software costs required for a load balancing solution.
C. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Client Access server.
D. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Mailbox server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend which task is required to prepare Active Directory for the planned Exchange Server 2013 implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparead.
B. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparead.
C. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparealldomains.
D. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparedomain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend which type of group must be used to create the planned department lists.
Which type of group should you recommend?
A. Universal Distribution
B. Dynamic Distribution
C. Global Security
D. Universal Security
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the technical requirements of the research and development (R&D) department. 70-398 pdf
Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new global address list (GAL) and a new address book policy.
B. Modify the permissions of the default global address list (GAL), and then create a new GAL.
C. Run the Update AddressList cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
E. Create an OAB virtual directory.
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 8
An administrator recommends removing EDGE1 from the implementation plan and adding a new Client Access server named CAS-8 instead.
You need to identify which anti-spam feature will NOT be available on CAS-8.
Which anti-spam feature should you identify?
A. Connection Filtering
B. Sender Filtering
C. Content Filtering
D. Recipient Filtering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have an on-premises Exchange 2010 organization. All clients use Outlook 2007 SP1. You enable online archive mailboxes in Exchange Online for several users.
The users are unable to access the online archive mailboxes in Microsoft Outlook.You need to ensure that users can access the online archive mailboxes in Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Apply Outlook 2007 SP2 and all related updates.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the users to the Global Administrators group.
C. Instruct the users to access the online archive mailboxes by using Outlook Web App.
D. Delete and recreate the users’ Outlook profiles.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online.
The company has mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external domains. 70-398 dumps
You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list.
Correct Answer: DF

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QUESTION 1
A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?
A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.
B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.
C. Configure large pool if not already done.
D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.
E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.
F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 2
You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use? 1z0-068 pdf
A. Database Replay
B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?
A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog
B. available archived redo log files
C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete
D. backups of tablespaces
E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy
Correct Answer: ACD
1Z0-068 dumps
QUESTION 4           1z0-068 dumps
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
Identify three scenarios in which RMAN will use backup sets to perform active database duplication. 1z0-068 pdf
A. when the duplicate … from active database command contains the section size clause
B. when you perform active database duplication on a database with flashback disabled
C. when you specify set encryption before the duplicate … from active database command
D. when the number of auxiliary channels allocated is equal to or greater than the number of target channels
E. when you perform active database duplication on a database that has read-onlytablespaces
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about recovering logically corrupted tables or table partitions from an RMAN backup?
A. Tables or table partitions can be recovered by using an auxiliary instance only.
B. Tables or table partitions with a foreign key cannot be recovered.
C. Tables or table partitions can be recovered only when the database is in mount state.
D. Tables or table partitions from the system and sysauxtablespaces cannot be recovered.
E. Tables with not null constraints cannot be recovered.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about dropping a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. A PDB must be in mount state or it must be unplugged.
B. The data files associated with a PDB are automatically removed from disk.
C. A dropped and unplugged PDB can be plugged back into the same multitenant container database (CDB) or other CDBs.
D. A PDB must be in closed state.
E. The backups associated with a PDB are removed.
F. A PDB must have been opened at least once after creation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
You created a database with DBCA by using one of the Oracle supplied templates. 1z0-068 dumps
Which is the default permanent tablespace for all users except DBSNMP and OUTLN?
A. USERS
B. SYSTEM
C. SYSAUX
D. EXAMPLE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
Which three types of failures are detected by the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA)? 1z0-068 pdf
A. loss of a non-critical data file
B. loss of a control file
C. physical data block corruption
D. logical data block corruption
E. loss of an archived redo log file
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?
A. Visibility of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is controlled by the row archival visibility session parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the database based on activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which two resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases (PDBs) when creating a multitenant container database (COB) plan using Oracle Database Resource Manager?
A. maximum undo per consumer group
B. maximum idle time for a session in a PDB
C. parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. maximum number of sessions for a PDB
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
You want to consolidate backup information and centrally manage backup and recovery scripts for multiple databases running in your organization.
Which two backup solutions can be used?
A. RMAN recovery catalog
B. RMAN Media Management Library
C. Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
D. Enterprise Manager Database Express
E. Oracle Secure Backup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:
1. Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.
2.Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.
How would you create these jobs?
A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler raised events.
B. Create both jobs using application raised events.
C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.
D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20. 1z0-068 dumps
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used
D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
Correct Answer: AB

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[High Quality VMware Dumps] 2017 Latest VMware 2V0-621D Dumps Exam Questions And Answers, The Best 2V0-621D Dumps PDF Materials And Youtube

Download free latest VMware 2V0-621D exam questions and answers online, high quality VMware 2V0-621D dumps pdf training materials. http://www.lead4pass.com/2V0-621D.html dumps exam practice files. The best VMware VCP6-DCV 2V0-621D dumps exam training resources which are the best for clearing 2V0-621D test, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
An administrator is upgrading a vCenter Server Appliance and wants to ensure that all the prerequisites are met.
What action must be taken before upgrading the vCenter Server Appliance?
A. Install the Client Integration Plug-in.
B. Install the database client.
C. Install the ODBC connector.
D. Install the Update Manager Plug-in.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What three supported methods can be used to upgrade a host from ESXi 5.x to ESXi 6.x? (Choose three.) 2V0-621D pdf
A. vSphere Update Manager
B. vihostupdate
C. esxcli
D. vSphere Auto Deploy
E. esxupdate
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621D dumps
An administrator is configuring a storage device as shown in the Exhibit.
What is the expected effect on the stated device after running the command? 2V0-621D dumps
A. I/O will rotate on all storage targets regardless of port group state.
B. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are Active Optimized state only.
C. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are Active Unoptimized state only.
D. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are on Available Nodes only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621D dumps
An administrator has configured a vSphere 6.x DRS cluster as shown in the Exhibit. 2V0-621D pdf
Based on the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Test Resource Pool with a 6 GB Memory Reservation.
B. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Dev Resource Pool with a 8 GB Memory Reservation.
C. A virtual machine from both the Test Resource Pool and the Dev Resource Pool can be powered on with a 4 GB Memory Reservation.
D. No more virtual machines can be powered on due to insufficient resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which condition would cause a vCenter Server installation to fail when installing on a Windows virtual machine?
A. The virtual machine does not have at least four vCPUs.
B. The virtual machine is running Windows Server 2008.
C. The virtual machine has an E1000 network device.
D. The virtual machine does not have 16GB of RAM.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An administrator notices that the time on an ESXi 6.x host is incorrect.
Which two actions should the administrator take to correct this issue? (Choose two.) 2V0-621D dumps
A. Modify the time for the host using the vSphere client.
B. Correct the NTP settings in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
C. Configure NTP from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Use the vicfg-ntp command from the vSphere Management Appliance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An administrator is able to manage an ESXi 6.x host connected to vCenter Server using the vSphere Web Client but is unable to connect to the host directly.
Which action should the administrator take to correct this behavior?
A. Restart management agents on the ESXi host.
B. Disable Lockdown Mode on the ESXi host through vCenter Server.
C. Disable the ESXi firewall with the command esxcli network firewall unload.
D. Reboot the ESXi host.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
An administrator wants to power on a virtual machine (VM) while connected to an ESXi host using SSH.
The VM has the following Name and ID:
VM Name = SQL001
VMID = 12345
Which command would successfully power on the virtual machine?
A. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
B. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
C. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
D. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator is observing slow performance of the vCenter Inventory Service and observes the entries from the wrapper.log file:
Exception in thread “tomcat-exec-2” java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap spaceException in thread 2V0-621D pdf
“http-bio-0.0.0.0-10443-Acceptor-0” java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space
What should the administrator do to resolve the problem?
A. Increase the memory resources of the vCenter Server.
B. Increase the values using cloudvm-ram-size.
C. Increase the memory resouces of the Platform Services Controller.
D. Increase the wrapper.java.maxmemory value in wrapper.conf.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three troubleshooting actions should an administrator take to address slow performance when deploying a virtual machine template? (Choose three.) 2V0-621D dumps
A. Increase network throughput by adding additional uplinks to the vSwitch.
B. Change the destination datastore or volume for the virtual machine template.
C. Configure a Provisioning Traffic vmkernel port to perform the deployment operation.
D. Reduce the size of the virtual machine template’s virtual disk.
E. Deploy the virtual machine template to the cluster and allow Distributed Resource Scheduler to register the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: ABC

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Free Latest Cisco 210-060 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Free Try, Best 210-060 Dumps Study Guide And Youtube

2017 latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. http://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html dumps exam practice files. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps pdf training materials.

QUESTION 1
A technician is preparing to activate the needed services in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to integrate with an IM and Presence server. Which four services must be enabled? (Choose four.) 210-060 pdf
A. Cisco TFTP
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco CTI Manager
D. Cisco Messaging Interface
E. Cisco Intercluster Lookup Service
F. Cisco Extended Functions
G. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
H. Cisco Directory Sync
Correct Answer: ABCG

QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-060 dumps
Which method is using the users to access their mailboxes? 210-060 dumps
A. web access
B. phone access
C. GUI access
D. VUI access
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting? 210-060 pdf
A. system > scheduler > CDR
B. system reports > unified CM data summary > generate report
C. system > tools > reports
D. tools > CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a report that Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not responding. The engineer needs to use RTMT to check errors. Which menu path should the engineer follow to install RTMT?
A. System Settings > Plugins > RTMT
B. Unified Communications Serviceability > Downloads > RTMT
C. Application > Plugins > RTMT
D. System > Plugins > RTMT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option would an administrator use to find all unassigned directory numbers in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Route plan report
B. CDR
C. CAR
D. Cisco Reporting Tool
E. Directory number lookup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection? 210-060 dumps
A. Port Monitor
B. Called Party Tracing
C. System Summary
D. Trace and Log Central
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
User A needs to have a line shared on the user B phone. Both phones register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which method can be used from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web pages to configure a shared line on the user B phone? 210-060 pdf
A. Navigate to the user B phone > Add the user A DN.
B. Navigate to the user B phone > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
C. Navigate to DN configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
D. Navigate to end user configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber. Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.) 210-060 dumps
A. Jabber Advanced Settings
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D. Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E. Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F. Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G. Jabber Version
Correct Answer: ABC

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[High Quality Oracle Dumps] Latest Oracle 1Z0-804 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Free Demo, The Best 1Z0-804 Dumps Exam Study Guide And Youtube

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Question No : 1
Given the code fragment:
DataFormat df;
Which statement defines a new Dateformat object that displays the default date format for the UK Locale?
A. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
B. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, UK);
C. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
D. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
E. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
Answer: C

Explanation:
The UK locale is constructed with Locale.UK.
Example:
To format a date for a different Locale, specify it in the call to getDateInstance(). 1Z0-804 pdf DateFormat df = Date Format. get Date Instance (Date Format. LONG, Locale. FRANCE); Note: get Date Instance (int style, Locale aLocale)
Gets the date formatter with the given formatting style for the given locale.

Question No : 2
Sam has designed an application. It segregates tasks that are critical and executed frequently from tasks that are non critical and executed less frequently. He has prioritized these tasks based on their criticality and frequency of execution. After close scrutiny, he finds that the tasks designed to be non critical are rarely getting executed.
From what kind of problem is the application suffering?
A. race condition
B. starvation
C. deadlock
D. livelock
Answer: C

Explanation:
Starvation describes a situation where a thread is unable to gain regular access to shared resources and is unable to make progress. This happens when shared resources are made unavailable for long periods by “greedy” threads. For example, suppose an object provides a synchronized method that often takes a long time to return. If one thread invokes this method frequently, other threads that also need frequent synchronized access to the same object will often be blocked.
1Z0-804 dumps
Question No : 3           1Z0-804 dumps
Which two codes correctly represent a standard language locale code?
A. ES
B. FR
C. U8
D. Es
E. fr
F. u8
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Language codes are defined by ISO 639, an international standard that assigns two- and three-letter codes to 1Z0-804 pdf most languages of the world. Locale uses the two-letter codes to identify the target language.

Question No : 4
Which two code blocks correctly initialize a Locale variable?
A. Locale loc1 = “UK”;
B. Locale loc2 = Locale.getInstance(“ru”);
C. Locale loc3 = Locale.getLocaleFactory(“RU”);
D. Locale loc4 = Locale.UK;
E. Locale loc5 = new Locale(“ru”, “RU”);
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
D: The Locale class provides a number of convenient constants that you can use to create Locale objects for commonly used locales. For example, the following creates a Locale object for the United States:
Locale.US
E: Create a Locale object using the constructors in this class:
Locale(String language)
Locale(String language, String country)
Locale(String language, String country, String variant)

Question No : 5
Which statement declares a generic class?
A. public class Example < T >{ }
B. public class { }
C. public class Example <> { }
D. public class Example (Generic){ }
E. public class Example (G) { }
F. public class Example { }
Answer: A

Question No : 6
When using the default file system provider with a JVM running on a DOS-based file system, which statement is true?
A. DOS file attributes can be read as a set in a single method call.
B. DOS file attributes can be changed as a set in a single method call.
C. DOS file attributes can be modified for symbolic links and regular files.
D. DOS file attributes can be modified in the same method that creates the file.
Answer: A

Explanation:
File attributes associated with a file in a file 1Z0-804 dumps system that supports legacy

Question No : 7
Given this error message when running your application:
Exception in thread “main” java.util.MissingResourceException: Can’t find bundle for base name MessageBundle, locale
And given that the MessageBundle.properties file has been created, exists on your disk, and is properly formatted.
What is the cause of the error message?
A. The file is not in the environment path.
B. The file is not in the classpath.
C. The file is not in the javapath.
D. You cannot use a file to store a ResourceBundle.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Resource Bundle. get Bundle is using a resource name; it isn’t called Resource Bundle for 1Z0-804 pdf nothing. You can create a custom ClassLoader and use that to load the data.

Question No : 8
Given a language code of fr and a country code of FR, which file name represents a resource bundle file name that is not the default?
A. MessageBundle_fr_FR.properties
B. MessageBundle_fr_FR.profile
C. MessageBundle_fr_FR.xinl
D. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Java
E. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Locale
Answer: A

Explanation:
The default file is Message Bundle. properties.
The non-default file name is MessageBundle_fr_FR.properties
Note 0: .properties is a file extension for 1Z0-804 dumps files mainly used in Java related technologies to store the configurable parameters of an application. They can also be used for storing strings for Internationalization and localization; these are known as Property Resource Bundles.
Each parameter is stored as a pair of strings, one storing the name of the parameter (called the key), and the other storing the value.

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[High Quality Citrix Dumps] Lead4pass Latest Citrix 1Y0-401 Dumps PDF Study Files And Youtube, The Best 1Y0-401 Dumps Questions And Answers

The best Citrix 1Y0-401 dumps VCE Files with Latest 1Y0-401 questions and answers. http://www.lead4pass.com/1y0-401.html pdf dumps. Pass Citrix 1Y0-401 exam at first try. Download free 1Y0-401 test answers for VCE Player.

QUESTION 1
Which change to the corporate Windows 7 client would prevent single sign-on to the infrastructure using the end user’s Active Directory account?
A. A Smart Card reader is installed to allow the end user to log on with an X509 certificate issued by the Active Directory Certificate Authority.
B. The workstation has the ‘Interactive login: Do not display last user name’ policy applied and enforced by Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. The native Windows Receiver is removed and end users can access the environment using the HTML Receiver through a web browser.
D. The Windows workstation is joined to a different domain than where the end user account resides, and the two domains are in the same forest.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option requires the fewest components to implement a fault-tolerant, load-balanced solution for enduser access at each datacenter?
A. Two StoreFront servers in a single StoreFront server group.
B. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to a single StoreFront server.
C. Three NetScalers in a cluster, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
D. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
Correct Answer: B
1Y0-401
QUESTION 3        1Y0-401 dumps
A Citrix Architect recommends that the SAP and Office Suite images be consolidated into a single image.
Which two factors helped guide the architect’s recommendation? (Choose two.)
A. A reduction in Hotfix testing time
B. CGE’s planned upgrade to Microsoft Office 2013
C. The use of both applications by all CGE end users
D. End-user complaints about slow application launch times
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which tool should a Citrix Architect use to collect session latency and bandwidth requirements for end users in the Jurong office?
A. HDX Monitor
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix EdgeSight
D. Citrix AppCenter Console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a multi-server Provisioning Services solution for CGE. The solution must be highly available and minimize the risk of vDisk inconsistency. 1Y0-401 vce
Why does implementing RAID 10 satisfy the requirements?
A. It provides striping and the highest performance.
B. It minimizes disk space and provides the highest performance.
C. It minimizes disk space and provides fault tolerance.
D. It provides fault tolerance and the highest performance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. 1Y0-401 dumps
How should the architect design the image management process using Windows Deployment Services?
A. Prepare an existing machine as the master image.
B. Install a new Windows image utilizing a XenServer virtual machine prepared as the master image, install the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA), and run SysPrep on the virtual machine.
C. Use a XenServer virtual machine to install a new Windows image with MAK prepared as the master image, and ensure the image has two network cards.
D. Run the Capture Image Wizard on an existing machine.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. 1Y0-401 pdf
Why is XenServer Fast Clone the best image management method for this environment?
A. It provides centralized image management.
B. It reduces machine-provisioning time.
C. It minimizes network traffic.
D. It improves image deployment consistency.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE has two StoreFront server groups. End users need to be able to roam between regions but keep their individual application subscriptions.
What should a Citrix Architect recommend to fulfill this requirement and keep management overhead to a minimum?
A. Configure all regions to be part of the same server group.
B. Configure a mandatory store in StoreFront to keep consistent application sets.
C. Copy the end-user subscription database between the server groups manually.
D. Configure scheduled subscription replication between server groups using PowerShell.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Machine Creation Services to facilitate image management?
A. By using Fast Clones
B. By using Machine Creation Services policies
C. By using snapshots
D. By using the Windows Automatic Install Kit (WAIK)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production.   1Y0-401 dumps
Why does using Provisioning Services and leveraging snapshots help manage the image versioning process?
A. It enables rollbacks.
B. It manages version control.
C. It leverages storage array features to offload host processing.
D. It automatically deploys the latest drivers and patches.
Correct Answer: D

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Lpi

[High Quality Lpi Dumps] 2017 Latest Lpi 101-400 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers, High Quality 101-400 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube

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QUESTION 1
After moving data to a new filesystem, how can the former path of the data be kept intact in order to avoid reconfiguration of existing applications? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. By creating an ACL redirection from the old to the new path of the data.
B. By creating a hard link from the old to the new path of the data.
C. By creating a symbolic link from the old to the new path of the data.
D. By running the command touch on the old path.
E. By mounting the new filesystem on the original path of the data.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE
101-400
QUESTION 3          101-400
In Bash, inserting 1>&2 after a command redirects
A. standard error to standard input.
B. standard input to standard error.
C. standard output to standard error.
D. standard error to standard output.
E. standard output to standard input.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands changes the number of days before the ext3 filesystem on /dev/sda1 has to run through a full filesystem check while booting?
A. tune2fs -d 200 /dev/sda1
B. tune2fs -c 200 /dev/sda1
C. tune2fs -i 200 /dev/sda1
D. tune2fs -n 200 /dev/sda1
E. tune2fs –days 200 /dev/sda1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands kills the process with the PID 123 but allows the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -PIPE 123
B. kill -KILL 123
C. kill -STOP 123
D. kill -TERM 123
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What is the effect of the egrep command when the -v option is used?
A. It enables color to highlight matching parts.
B. It only outputs non-matching lines.
C. It shows the command’s version information.
D. It changes the output order showing the last matching line first.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands will print the last 10 lines of a text file to the standard output?
A. cat -n 10 filename
B. dump -n 10 filename
C. head -n 10 filename
D. tail -n 10 filename
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following settings for umask ensures that new files have the default permissions -rw-r—– ?
A. 0017
B. 0640
C. 0038
D. 0027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands prints all files and directories within the /tmp directory or its subdirectories which are also owned by the user root? (Choose TWO correct answers.) 101-400
A. find /tmp -uid root -print
B. find -path /tmp -uid root
C. find /tmp -user root -print
D. find /tmp -user root
E. find -path /tmp -user root print
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
Correct Answer: D

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