Cisco

Free download of the latest 500-325 exam dump, experts recommend easy to pass 500-325 exam

Where can I download the 500-325 exam dumps and pass the exam? Newpdfebooks shares the latest and effective Cisco Collaboration Servers and Appliances Role 500-325 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 500-325 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 500-325 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/500-325.html (91 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

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Advanced Collaboration Specialization – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/partners/partner_with_cisco/channel_partner_program/specializations/adv-coll-arch-spec-partner-req_etme_en.pdf

Latest updates Cisco 500-325 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which setting helps the OLTP systems to handle the heavy I/O workloads by allowing the execution of multiple threads
per CPU core?
A. Direct Cache Access
B. Intel Turbo Boost
C. Speedstep
D. Hyper-Threading
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_c11-727827.html

QUESTION 2
Which option to configure in-band access to a Cisco IMC means the IP address stays with the server?
A. directly on the Cisco IMC
B. You can only configure out-of-band
C. on the service-profile
D. in the VLAN group
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/integrated-management-controller/118367-configure-cimc-00.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which use of the Smart Call Home Configuration window is true?
A. selecting the network master configuration location
B. selecting the method to send data to TAC
C. selecting email address for alert messages
D. selecting text address for alert messages
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
How many CMS2000 servers can be clustered together?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In the KVM console, which result occurs if the first default is used and network does not have IPv6 configured?
A. KVM switches to IPv4.
B. KVM prompts the admin to enable IPv6.
C. KVM moves to the next default option listed.
D. KVM fails to launch.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which software is wide open and can run any Cisco or third-party application without limitation?
A. Cisco UC Virtualization Hypervisor Plus
B. VMware vSphere ESXi
C. Cisco TelePresence Virtualization Software
D. Cisco UC Virtualization Foundation
Correct Answer: B
The VMware vSphere ESXi software, however, is wide open, and can run any Cisco or 3rd-party application without
limitation.

QUESTION 7
Which additional service beyond the basic three components of Cisco Spark is available in Cisco Spark Hybrid to
simplify the user experience?
A. meeting
B. calendar
C. forwarding
D. transferring
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How many collaboration applications does the Cisco BE7000H appliance support?
A. eight to ten
B. nine fixed
C. five to ten
D. four to six
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/business-edition-7000/data-sheet-c78-730649.html

QUESTION 9
Which option lists three different Cisco support models?
A. UC on UCS TRC, UC on UCS specs-based, and third-party server specs-based
B. UC on UCS TRC, UC on UCS specs-based, and optional server specs-based
C. UC on UCS CRT, UC on UCS specs-based, and third-party server specs-based
D. UC on UCS TRC, UC on UCS non-specs-based, and third-party server specs-based
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are DVS features collectively referred to as?
A. VR-Link
B. VN-Link
C. DN-Link
D. DVS-Link
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

QUESTION 11
Which option is a Trusted Reference Configuration?
A. Server configuration bundles defined and supported by Cisco
B. Server hardware without software
C. Server configuration bundles defined and supported by you
D. Virtual servers without hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which description of the Virtual Machine Placement Tool is true?
A. way to map virtual servers to physical servers
B. way to place virtual servers on Spark
C. way to order physical servers
D. way to place virtual servers in the cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which definition of Cisco Spark Hybrid is true?
A. way to connect Cisco TelePresence Server and the Spark Cloud to optimize communication
B. way to connect Cisco Video Communication Server and the Spark Cloud to optimize communication
C. way to connect Cisco TelePresence Management Server and the Spark Cloud to optimize communication
D. way to connect Cisco Unified Communication Manager and the Spark Cloud to optimize communication
Correct Answer: D

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CCIE Wireless

How do I get free CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps? PDF dumps and VCE dumps?

What is the best way to pass the Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco 400-351 exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-351.html ( pdf + vce ) Study hard to pass the exam easily!

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400-351 CCIE Wireless – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-wireless2.html

The Cisco CCIE Wireless Written Exam is a 2-hour test that will validate that a wireless engineer has the expertise to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise WLAN networks.

Latest updates Cisco 400-351 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

After going through the DCF process, what further process does the client go through to reserve a medium? 

A. No process, it can begin transmitting immediately 

B. Send a REQ, receive an ACK, send frames 

C. Send an RTS and SIFS, receive a CTS and SIFS, then send frames 

D. Send a CTS and SIFS, receive an RTS and SIFS, then send frames 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 2

Which option is a feature of a Cisco Autonormous AP that prevents over-the-air direct P2P communication, which forces

all traffic to hit the first-hop router where security policy is enforced? 

A. Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy 

B. P2P Secure Packet Public 

C. Secure Packet Forwarding 

D. P2P Blocking Action 

Correct Answer: C 

http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Wireless_Technologies Cisco Aironet Access Points

http://www.cisco.com/web/techdoc/wireless/access_points/online_help/eag/123- 02.JA/1400BR/h_ap_network-if_802-11_c.html Public Secure Packet Forwarding Public Secure Packet Forwarding (PSPF) prevents client devices

associated to an access point from inadvertently sharing files or communicating with other client devices associated to

the access point. It provides Internet access to client devices without providing other capabilities of a LAN. No exchange

of unicast, broadcast, or multicast traffic occurs between protected ports. Choose Enable so that the protected port can

be used for secure mode configuration. PSPF must be set per VLAN. Note: To prevent communication between clients

associated to different access points on your wireless LAN, you must set up protected ports on the switch to which your

access points are connected. Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy | Security and Network Management J Cisco Support

Community https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/11851216/wi-fi-direct-client-policy Information About the Wi-Fi

Direct Client Policy Devices that are Wi-Fi Direct capable can connect directly to each other quickly and conveniently to

do tasks such as printing, synchronization, and sharing of data. Wi-Fi Direct devices may associate with multiple peer-to-

peer (P2P) devices and with infrastructure wireless LANs (WLANs) concurrently. You can use the controller to configure

the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy, on a per WLAN basis, where you can allow or disallow association of Wi-Fi devices with

infrastructure WLANs, or disable Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy altogether for WLANs.

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_ chapter_01000011.html 

 

QUESTION 3

DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the mobility architecture components on the left to their primary function on the right? 

Select and Place:lead4pass 400-351 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-351 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
Which two effects does TSPEC-based admission control have as it relates to WMM clients?(Choose two.)
A. Deny clients access to the VLAN that do not support WMM.
B. Allow access only for VoWLAN traffic when interference is detected.
C. Enforce airtime entitilement for wireless voice applications.
D. Ensure that call quality does not degrade for existing VoWLAN calls.
E. Deny clients access to the WLAN if they do not comply with the TERP standard.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 400-351 exam question q5

the autonomous AP has a corporate and guest SSID configured . The security team requested that you limit guest user
traffic to DHCP ,DNS, and web browsing on the AP. which configuration best satisfies the request?
A. access-list 101permit udp any any eq 67 access-list 101permit udp 10.28.128.0 0.0.0.255 host 10128.10.15 eq 53
access-list 101 permit tcp 10.28.128.0.0.0.0.255 any eq 80 access-list 101 deny ip any any interface dot11radio 0 ip
access-group 101 in
B. access-list 101permit udp any any eq 67 access-list 101permit udp 10.28.128 0.255.255.255 host 10128.10.15 eq 53
access-list 101permit tcp 10.28.128 0.255.255.255 any eq 80 access-list 101deny ip any any interface dot11radio 0 ip
access-group 101in
C. access-list 101 perm1t udp any any eq 67 access-list 101 per mit udp 10.28.128.0 0.0.0.255 host 10128.10.15 eq 53
access- l1st 101 permit tcp 10.28.128.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 80 access-list 101 deny ip any any interface fast Ethernet 0 ip
access-group 101 in
D. access-list 101 permit udp any anyeq 67 access-list 101 permit udp 10.28.128 0.255.255.255 host 10128.10.15 eq
53 access-list 101 permit tcp 10.28.128 0.255.255.255 any eq 80 access-list 101 deny ip any any interface fast Ethernet
0 ip access-group 101 in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-351 exam question q6

APs on VLAN 2100 can get IP address but cannotregister to the WLC TheiP address of the WLC management interface
is 24.244.4.227 which option is the correct DHCP option 43 configuration.?
A. f10412f41cd9
B. f10418f404227
C. f10818f41cd0a181cf4a01c
D. f10418f404e3E. f1040a3f0701
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-351 exam question q7

The network operations center is using PI to collect and monitor the AVC data from a cisco WLC however no AVC
information is showing up in cisco PI based on this information from the Cisco WLC reason that Cisco PI is not showing
the information is True.?
A. Cisco prime does not have the correct licensing installed.
B. The monitor-Name and exporter-name do note match
C. The Exporter-IP should be the IP address of the cisco WLC
D. The port number should be 9991.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the Cisco WCS RRM event message is true?lead4pass 400-351 exam question q8

A. Excessive non-802.11 interference caused the channel change.
B. An event-driven RRM caused the channel change.
C. A CleanAir AP detected a persistence interferer and forced an RRM channel reassignment.
D. Two adjacent APs on the same channel caused a signal collision.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
In a common loT infrastructure architecture, which technologies apply to the category of a field area network?
A. IP/MPLS
B. Multicast
C. 3G/4G/LTE/Wi-Fi/Ethernet/PLC
D. Embedded systems and sensors
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/internet-of-things/iot-products.html

QUESTION 10
Which AireOS release id the first to support new Mobility on the Cisco 2504 WLC?
A. 8.1x
B. 7.6x
C. 7.4x
D. 8.0x
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-6/configuration-gu-HYPERLINK
“http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-6/configuration-
guide/b_cg76/b_cg76_chapter_010010110.html”ide/b_cg76/ b_cg76_chapter_010010110.h tml

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-351 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-351 exam question q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-351 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-351 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Which three statements about 802.11ac are true? (choose three)
A. MU-MIMO is supported in wave 1
B. MU-MIMO allows one AP to transmit unique data to multiple stations simultaneously
C. when using MU-MIMI up to 8 devices can transmit data at the same time
D. 802.11 a/b/g/n device are able to connect to 802.11ac radios
E. it IS possible to reach 160 MHz by combining two discontinuous 80 MHz channel block
F. 802.11 ac is supported in the 2.4- and 5-Ghz radio band
Correct Answer: BDE

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CCNP Collaboration

Cisco 300-085 exam questions, 300-085 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

“ Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application (CAPPS)” Exam 300-085. Here you can get the latest free Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

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300-085 exam – This exam tests candidates on the integration options of Cisco Unified IM and Presence, Cisco Unity Express, Cisco Unity Connection, Cisco Prime Collaboration, and Cisco TelePresence Management Suite in a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution.

It covers voice messaging deployment scenarios, Cisco Unified IM and Presence features, and the implementation of Cisco Jabber. The exam also covers Cisco Prime Collaboration features and the role of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite in a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/300-085.html exam.

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Free Cisco 300-085 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their
contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
B. Cisco XCP Router
C. Cisco Presence Engine
D. Cisco SIP Proxy
E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager
F. Cisco Client Profile Agent
G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager
Correct Answer: ABCE

 

QUESTION 2
Which endpoint is a low-touch provisioning endpoint supported by TMS provisioning extension?
A. MXX
B. M
C. MX
D. M-2XX
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is creating a new cluster in TMS and has selected “Enable Provisioning.” The following error message is
seen: “Verify that the tmsprovisioningservice is running.” What are two reasons for this issue?
A. There is a space in the VCS system name
B. Movi option key has not beenadded to the Cisco TMS
C. SNMP has not been enabled on VCS
D. UPD Port 161 has been blocked on the network
E. The management address on the VCS does not match the TMS IP address
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
You have recently restored your Cisco Unity Connection server through the Disaster Recovery System. Since the
restore, your users have noticed that their message waiting indicators are inconsistent. Where can you look in the Cisco
Unity Connection Administration to correct this issue?
A. Voicemail > Message Waiting
B. Telephony Integrations > Port Group
C. Telephony Integrations > Phone System
D. Users > Users > Message Waiting Indicators
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which service must you restart, in order to enable file transfers on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and
Presence server?
A. Cisco SIP Proxy
B. Cisco Presence Engine
C. Cisco XCP Router
D. Cisco Sync Agent
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two protocols allow Cisco TMS to manage an EX60 endpoint? (Choose two.)
A. H.323
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. SIP
E. HTTP/HTTPS
F. RTCP
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 7
Which parameter is used to accommodate the local dial plan in Cisco Unity Connection when the Voice Profile for
Internet Mail location is configured?
A. Remote Phone Prefix
B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol Domain Name
C. IP Address
D. Display Name
E. Dial ID
F. Route Patterns
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
On Cisco TelePresence Management Suite, which two call control devices are supported for call control and setup?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
B. Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. any SIP-capable call control system
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9
Which describes an idle status of the node in a Presence Redundancy Group?
A. In this state, you can manually initiate a failover to this node using the Cisco Unified CM Administration user
interface
B. The IM and Presence Service node does not provide any availability or Instant Messaging services.
C. This is the initial state when the Cisco Server Recovery Manager service starts.
D. The IM and Presence Service node has failed over, but no critical services are down.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Where can an engineer change a user provisioning password?
A. Cisco TMSPE User Provisioning page
B. Cisco TMSPE User Import page
C. Cisco TMSPE account AD credentials
D. Cisco TMSPE account settings
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
When manually configuring users in Cisco Unity Connection, what is the most efficient way of adding the user to the
system?
A. COBRAS
B. Cisco Unity user templates
C. Microsoft Active Directory
D. Cisco Unity Migration
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco TMS component has a single management console for selected third-party Cisco TelePresence devices?
A. Provisioning and Configuration
B. Infrastructure Management
C. Conference Control Center
D. Booking and Scheduling
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which three types of integrations can Cisco TMS use to import users during provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco VCS
C. Active Directory
D. Secure Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and PresenceService
F. Cisco Unity Connection
G. LDAP
Correct Answer: CDG

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Microsoft

Provides a valid Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 exam dumps | 100% Free

Trainingolives shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 exam “MTA Security Fundamentals Practice Test” https://www.lead4pass.com/98-367.html (277 Q&As).Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco 98-367 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!

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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals – Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
The Windows Firewall protects computers from unauthorized network connections.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Email viruses
B. Phishing scams
C. Unencrypted network access
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following operating systems have Windows Security Health Agent (SHA) on computers and report their
status to the Security Health Validator (SHV)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Windows 2000 Professional
B. Windows Vista Business
C. Windows XP Service Pack 3
D. Windows 7 Professional
Correct Answer: BCD
Answer: B, D, and C and correct.
The following operating systems have Security Health Agent (SHA) on computers and report their status to the Security
Health Validator (SHV):
Windows Vista Business Windows 7 Professional Windows XP Service Pack 3

 

QUESTION 3
Mark works as a Network Administrator for TechMart Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Mark wants to
implement a method to ensure that the mobile devices are in a good state of security health when they are trying to
access the corporate network. Which of the following is a control or strategy that Mark will implement to assure the
security health?
A. TCP/IP protocol
B. Kerberos
C. Single Sign On
D. Network Access Protection
Correct Answer: D
Network Access Protection (NAP) is a set of operating system components included with the Windows Server 2008 and
Windows Vista/7 operating systems. It ensures that the client computers on a private network meet administrator-
defined requirements for system health. NAP policies define the required configuration and update status for a client
computer\\’s operating system and critical software. For example, an administrator can set policies that computers might
be required to have antivirus software with the latest virus definition installed and current operating system updates.
Using NAP, a network administrator can enforce compliance with health requirements for the client computers
connection to the network. NAP helps network administrators to reduce the risk caused by improperly configured client
computers that might be exposed to viruses and other malicious software. Answer: C is incorrect. Single sign-on (SSO)
is defined as a mechanism in which a single action of user authentication and authorization is used to allow a user to
access all computers and systems where he got a access permission, without entering passwords for multiple times.
Answer: B is incorrect. Kerberos is defined as a secure method used for authenticating a request for a service in a
computer network. Answer: A is incorrect. TCP/IP protocol is used to define the rule computers are required to follow for
communicating with each other over the internet.

 

QUESTION 4
Mark works as a Security Administrator for TechMart Inc. The company has a a Windows-based network. Mark has
gone through a security audit for ensuring that the technical system is secure and protected. While this audit, he
identified many areas that need improvement. He wants to minimize the risk for potential security threats by educating
team members in the area of social engineering, and providing basic security principle knowledge and he also wants to
stress the Con?dentiality, Integrity, and Availability triangle in his training. For this purpose, he plans to implement the
principle of least privilege. In which of the following way, it will affect his team members?
A. They are required to ask administrator every time when they want to access resources.
B. They are granted with a smallest set of privileges to the resources
C. They are required to log on as administrator to have access to their resources
D. The current resource access of team members will not change.
Correct Answer: B
The principle of least privilege gives a user only those privileges that are essential to do his/her work. In information
security, computer science, and other fields, the principle of least privilege, is also known as the principle of minimal
privilege or least privilege. It define that in a particular abstraction layer of a computing environment, every module has
to be able to access only the information and resources that are essential for its legitimate purpose. It needs that each
subject in a system be granted the most restrictive set of privileges required for the authorized tasks.

 

QUESTION 5
What does implementing Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) allow a company to manage?
A. Shared private encryption key updates
B. Updates to Group Policy Objects
C. Active Directory server replication
D. Windows updates for workstations and servers
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which technology enables you to filter communications between a program and the Internet?
A. RADIUS server
B. Antivirus software
C. Software firewall
D. BitLocker To Go
Correct Answer: C
There are two types of firewalls the Hardware Firewall and the Software Firewall. A Software Firewall is a software
program and a Hardware Firewall is a piece of hardware. Both have the same objective of filtering communications over
a system.

 

QUESTION 7
Kerberos prevents:
A. Denial of Service attacks
B. spyware distribution
C. file corruption
D. replay attacks
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
On which of the following is the level of security set for an Internet zone applied?
A. To the sites that you have specifically indicated as the ones that you trust.
B. To all the Websites by default.
C. To the sites that might potentially damage your computer, or your information.
D. To the Websites and content that are stored on a corporate or business network.
Correct Answer: B
The level of security set for an Internet zone is applied to all the Websites by default. Answer: C is incorrect. The level of
security set for the restricted sites is applied to the sites that might potentially damage your computer, or your
information.
Answer: D is incorrect. The level of security set for the local intranet zone is applied to the Websites and content that are
stored on a corporate or business network. Answer:
A is incorrect. The level of security set for the trusted sites is applied to sites that you have specifically indicated as the
ones that you trust.

 

QUESTION 9
The purpose of User Account Control (UAC) is to:
A. Encrypt the user\\’s account
B. Limit the privileges of software
C. Secure your data from corruption
D. Facilitate Internet filtering
Correct Answer: B
User Account Control (UAC) is a technology and security infrastructure introduced with Microsoft\\’s Windows machines.
It aims to improve the security of Microsoft Windows by limiting application software to standard user privileges until an
administrator authorizes an increase or elevation. In this way, only applications trusted by the user may receive
administrative privileges, and malware should be kept from compromising the operating system.

 

QUESTION 10
Which type of firewall allows for inspection of all characteristics of a packet?
A. NAT
B. Stateful
C. Stateless
D. Windows Defender
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stateful_firewall

 

QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To determine which action, if any, to take on an inbound message, anti-spam and antivirus recipient filtering inspects
the IP address of the remote server that is trying to send messages.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. connection
B. sender
C. content
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/SecurityCompliance/configure-the-connection-filter-policy

 

QUESTION 12
Keeping a server updated:
A. Maximizes network efficiency
B. Fixes security holes
C. Speeds up folder access
D. Synchronizes the server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are required to enable for preventing the users from downloading and installing software from the
Internet? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Software restriction policies
B. PTR record
C. User Account Control
D. Anti-Virus software
Correct Answer: AC
Answer: C and A
It is required to enable User Account Control on all Windows 7 computers and to configure software restriction policies
to prevent the users from downloading and installing software from the Internet.

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Microsoft

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Exam 98-364: Database Fundamentals – Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-364.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understanding core database concepts (20–25%)
  • Create database objects (20–25%)
  • Manipulate data (25–30%)
  • Understand data storage (15–20%)
  • Administer a database (10–15%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam are seeking to prove introductory knowledge of and skills with databases, including relational databases, such as Microsoft SQL Server. It is recommended that candidates be familiar with the concepts of and have hands-on experience with the technologies described here, either by taking relevant training courses or by working with tutorials and samples available on MSDN and in Microsoft Visual Studio. Although minimal hands-on experience with the technologies is recommended, job experience is not assumed for these exams.

Microsoft Database 98-364 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A view can be used to:
A. Save an extra copy of data stored in a separate table.
B. Limit access to specific rows or columns of data in a table.
C. Ensure referential integrity.
D. Save historical data before deleting it from the base table.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What is one difference between an update statement and a delete statement?
A. An update statement can change only one row.
B. A delete statement cannot use a where clause.
C. An update statement does not remove rows from a table.
D. A delete statement works only within a stored procedure.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which permission does a user need in order to run a stored procedure?
A. EXECUTE
B. ALLOW
C. CALL
D. RUN
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You have a table named Employee that includes four columns. You execute the following statement:
SELECT * FROM Employee
Which columns are returned?
A. all columns
B. only the last column
C. only the first column
D. only the first and last columns
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road (RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL, Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data: You execute the following statement: INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234,
36)

lead4pass 98-364 exam question q5

What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You have a table that contains the following data.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q6

Which database term is used to describe the relationship between ProductID and ProductCategory?
A. Cohort
B. Relationally dependent
C. Deterministic
D. Functionally dependent
E. Compositional
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement should you use to remove a foreign key?
A. ALTER TABLE
B. DELETE TABLE
C. DELETE FOREIGN KEY
D. ALTER FOREIGN KEY
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
You create the following table, which lists how many books you have on loan to your friends.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q8

Harry in San Francisco returns your books.
Which statement will update your table correctly?
A. UPDATE LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE (Name = \\’Harry\\’ AND City = \\’San Francisco\\’)
B. UPDATE LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE (Name = \\’Harry\\’ OR City = \\’San Francisco\\’)
C. UPDATE LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE (Name in \\’Harry\\’, \\’San Francisco\\’)
D. INSERT INTO LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE ID =
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You have two tables named Cars and Color as defined below. The two tables are related by ColorId.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q9

You run the following SQL statement: select:

lead4pass 98-364 exam question q9-1

How many rows does the SQL statement return?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
You need to delete a database table.
Which data definition language (DDL) keyword should you use?
A. ALTER
B. DELETE
C. DROP
D. TRUNCATE
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The Product table contains the following data.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q11

You execute the following statement:
SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Product WHERE Quantity > 18
What is the value returned by this statement?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have two tables. Each table has three rows. You create a SQL query that uses a cross join. The query does not
include a WHERE clause.
Nine rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement corrector.
A. No change is needed
B. Zero
C. Three
D. Six
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
At 3:00 P.M. (1500 hours), you create a backup of your database. At 4:00 P.M. (1600 hours), you create a table named
Customer and import data into the table. At 5:00 P.M. (1700 hours), your server fails. You run a script to apply only the
3:00 P.M. backup to your database.
What is the result of the script?
A. The Customer table no longer exists.
B. The Customer table is unaffected.
C. The Customer table exists but has no data.
D. The script fails.
Correct Answer: A

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CCNA Security

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QUESTION 1
What configs are under crypto map? (Choose two)
A. set peer
B. set host
C. set transform-set
D. inerface
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
What is the only permitted operation for processing multicast traffic on zone-based firewalls?
A. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the self-zone.
B. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only between the self-zone and the internal zone.
C. Only control plane policing can protect the control plane against multicast traffic.
D. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the internal zone
Correct Answer: C
Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is NOT supported by Cisco Zone based firewalls OR Cisco Classic firewall.

 

QUESTION 3
Which port should (or would) be open if VPN NAT-T was enabled?
A. port 4500 outside interface
B. port 4500 in all interfaces where ipsec uses
C. port 500
D. port 500 outside interface
Correct Answer: B
NAT traversal: The encapsulation of IKE and ESP in UDP port 4500 enables these protocols to pass through a device
or firewall performing NAT. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Key_Exchange
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/64281/how-does-nat-t-work-ipsec

 

QUESTION 4
A. Remote peer was not able to encrypt the packet
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What type of firewall would use the given cofiguration line?lead4pass 210-260 exam question q5

A. a stateful firewall
B. a personal firewall
C. a proxy firewall
D. an application firewall
E. a stateless firewall
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which command initializes a lawful intercept view?
A. username cisco1 view lawful-intercept password cisco
B. parser view cisco li-view
C. li-view cisco user cisco1 password cisco
D. parser view li-view inclusive
Correct Answer: C
Before you initialize a lawful intercept view, ensure that the privilege level is set to 15 via the privilege command.
SUMMARY STEPS
1.
enable view
2.
configure terminal
3.
li-view li-password user username password password
4.
username lawful-intercept [name] [privilege privilege-level| view view-name] password password
5.
parser view view-name
6.
secret 5 encrypted-password
7.
name new-name

 

QUESTION 7
Which option is a key security component of an MDM deployment?
A. using MS-CHAPv2 as the primary EAP method.
B. using self-signed certificates to validate the server.
C. using network-specific installer packages
D. using an application tunnel by default.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose Two.)
A. They can modify the flow of traffic in transit.
B. They can access most network devices.
C. They can physically modify the network gateway.
D. They are used to perform man-in-the-middle attacks.
E. They protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address.
F. They use ARP poisoning.
Correct Answer: AD
DHCP spoofing occurs when an attacker attempts to respond to DHCP requests and trying to list themselves (spoofs)
as the default gateway or DNS server, hence, initiating a man in the middle attack. With that, it is possible that they can
intercept traffic from users before forwarding to the real gateway or perform DoS by flooding the real DHCP server with
request to choke ip address resources. https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/67229
https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/docs/DOC-24355

 

QUESTION 10
Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses TCP as its transport protocol.
B. It combines authentication and authorization.
C. Only the password is encrypted.
D. The TACACS+ header is unencrypted
E. It uses UDP as its transport protocol.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 11
What configuration allows AnyConnect to authenticate automatically establish a VPN session when a user logs in to the
computer?
A. proxy
B. Trusted Network Detection
C. transparent mode
D. always-on
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
You need to place these 7 options into HIPS and NIPS. Each section has 4 choices which means one out of these 7
options goes into both.
Select and Place:lead4pass 210-260 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 210-260 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement about college campus is true?
A. College campus has geographical position.
B. College campus Hasn`t got internet access.
C. College campus Has multiple subdomains.
Correct Answer: A

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CCIE

Get the latest 400-051 dumps with the Cisco CCIE 400-051 Certification Exam

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-051 exam question q1

In this high-availability Cisco IM and Presence deployment with three subclusters, the first user is assigned to server 1A;
the second user is assigned to server 2A; and the third user is assigned to server 3A. Assume that the Cisco IM and
Presence is set to Active/Standby mode, to which server should the fourth user be assigned?
A. 1A
B. 3B
C. 1B
D. 2A
E. 3A
Correct Answer: A
This deployment model provides the same level of redundancy and high availability as outlined in the “Balanced
Redundant High-Availability Deployment” section in this chapter. The only difference is that users are not deployed in a
balanced fashion, but rather all reside on the primary server in the subcluster, and the backup server is there as a
standby option if a node failure occurs.

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement describes the Cisco best practice recommendation about priority queue bandwidth allocation in
relationship to the total link bandwidth when multiple strict priority LLQs are configured on the same router interface?
A. Each LLQ should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity.
B. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to two-thirds of the link bandwidth capacity.
C. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-half of the link bandwidth capacity.
D. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity.
E. Cisco does not recommend more than one strict priority LLQ per interface.
Correct Answer: D
Cisco Technical Marketing testing has shown a significant decrease in data application response times when Real-Time
traffic exceeds one-third of a link\\’s bandwidth capacity. Cisco IOS Software allows the abstraction (and, thus,
configuration) of multiple LLQs. Extensive testing and production-network customer deployments have shown that
limiting the sum of all LLQs to 33 percent is a conservative and safe design ratio for merging real- time applications with
data applications.

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-051 exam question q3

A VOIP engineer must configure QoS for the switch ports to remap PC traffic to COS 2 while allowing Cisco phone COS
values to be used on the network. Which three commands satisfy these requirements? (Choose three)
A. FastEthernet 0/15 mls qos cos 2
B. FastEthernet 0/15 No mls qos cos 4
C. FastEthernet 0/15 Switchport priority extend cos
D. FastEthernet 0/15 mls qos cos override
E. FastEthernet 0/15 no mls qos cos override
F. FastEthernet 0/15 no mls qos trust device cisco-phone
G. FastEthernet 0/15 no switchport priority extend trust
Correct Answer: AEG

 

QUESTION 4
Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?
A. required RAID configuration, when the TRC uses direct-attached storage
B. configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping
C. step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup
D. configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
E. server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) by name only; part numbers are not
included because they change over time
Correct Answer: A
Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the orderable part number
level.
Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) – including battery backup cache or SuperCap – when the TRC
uses DAS storage Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup. Design, installation and configuration of external
hardware is not included in TRC definition, such as:
Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for VMware software are not included in
TRC definition. Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may also be leveraged for
configuration details not included in the TRC definition.

 

QUESTION 5
Which statement about Cisco EnergyWise domain member neighbor formation is true?
A. Cisco EnergyWise supports static neighbors, but the neighbor relationship is only possible if a noncontiguous domain
member and a contiguous domain member have a static neighbor entry pointing to each other.
B. Cisco EnergyWise static neighbors can be formed even if domain members are not physically contiguous.
C. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but TCP protocols must be used.
D. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but they have a lower priority
compared to the autodiscovered members.
E. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members and the TCP or UDP protocol can
be used.
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Energy_Management/energywisedg.html?referring_site=smartnavRD#wp554384


QUESTION 6
How many music on hold servers are required in a trunk-only megacluster of Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Session Management Edition?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Correct Answer: A
When considering a megacluster deployment, the primary areas impacting capacity are as follows:
The megacluster may contain a total of 21 servers consisting of 16 subscribers, 2 TFTP servers, 2 music on hold (MoH)
servers (0 required), and 1 publisher
Nerver type must be either Cisco MCS 7845-I3/H3 class or Cisco Unified Computing
System (UCS) C-Series or B-Series using the 10K Open Virtualization Archive (OVA) template.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_5_1/ccmfeat/fsgd-851-cm/fsmoh.html#wp1027431

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco collaboration engineer is troubleshooting unexpected SIP call disconnects. Which three responses correspond
to the 5xx range (Chose three).
A. Server timeout
B. Bad request
C. Temporarily unavailable
D. Service unavailable
E. Forbidden
F. Version not supported
Correct Answer: ADF

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement describes virtual SNR DN configuration and behaviour on a Cisco Communication Manager Express
IOS router?
A. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that must be associated with multiple registered IP phones
B. Mid-calls on virtual SNR DN can be pulled back as soon as a phone becomes associated with the DN
C. SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone
D. A call that is ringing a virtual SNR DN prior to its association with a registered phone, cannot be answered by the
phone even after the association is made
E. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer is configuring QoS for a 100 Mb WAN link. An ISP SLA was signed to support 70% of the link while
maintaining a steady flow?
A. traffic shape rate 70000000 8750000 8750000
B. traffic shape rate 100000000 70000000 70000000
C. police cir 70000000 confirm – action transmit exceed – action drop
D. police 70000000 13125000 confirm – action transmit exceed – action drop
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express script media step can invoke a VXML application to retrieve and play
prompts on-demand from an off-box location?
A. Play Prompt step
B. Voice Browser step
C. Menu step
D. Recording step
E. Simple Recognition step
Correct Answer: B
CRA Voice Browser is fully integrated with the CRA Engine. You can use scripts designed in the CRA Editor to extend
VoiceXML applications by providing ICD (Integrated Contact Distribution) call control and resource management. For
example, you can use VoiceXML to build a speech dialog as a front end to collect information from the caller. You can
then pass this information to the CRA script, and when the agent receives the call, the information collected by
VoiceXML will be available. You use the Voice Browser step in the Media palette of the CRA Editor to invoke a
VoiceXML application. You can use the bundled voicebrowser.aef script as an example for creating scripts that invoke
VoiceXML. (You can create custom scripts to execute other steps in addition to VoiceXML.)

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-051 exam question q11

Which SIP response message should the TGW send if it cannot process the tunneled QSIG messages from the OGW?
A. 405 Method Not Allowed
B. 406 Not Acceptable
C. 412 Conditional Request Failed
D. 415 Unsupported Media Type
E. 485 Ambiguous
Correct Answer: D
Fallback from QSIG Tunneling
In some situations, QSIG tunneling will fail or need to fall back:
Remote party does not support multipart MIME body: In this case, the remote side sends a “415 Media Not Supported”
response. Upon receiving this response, OGW will fall back to normal mode and send an INVITE request without any
tunneled content. This procedure helps ensure that at least the basic call will work normally.
Remote party does not understand tunneled content: If the remote side does not support the tunneled content, it should
drop the tunneled content and continue as a normal call; because all essential parameters are present in the original
INVITE, the call can go through without the need for fallback.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/empowered-branch-solution/white_paper_c11_459092.html

 

QUESTION 12
A customer asks you to build a SIP/SIMPLE IM federation between a Cisco Unified Communication Manager IM and
Presence environment and a Microsoft Lync 2013 environment. The Lync administrator insists that TLS is used for the
federation and that the SSL certificate used by Cisco Unified Communication Manager IM and Presence is signed by
the private CA of the enterprise. Which certificate must be in the Certificate Signing Request to accommodate the Lync
administrator requirements?
A. cupxmpp
B. tomcat
C. cupxmpps2s
D. ipsec
E. cup
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
In Cisco Unity Connection, which three configuration dialog boxes can a user assign a search space? (Choose three.)
A. Routing Rule
B. Call Handler
C. Interview Handler
D. Contacts
E. Users
F. Port
G. Phone System
Correct Answer: ABE

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CCDE

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QUESTION 1
An enterprise customer has a national WAN network based on DMVPN over the Internet, with sites located throughout
the country. The customer has recently deployed VoIP throughout the entire network , and users report that it takes up
to 2 seconds to establish a telephone call to an IP telephone at another office network. Drag and drop the root cause
and the corresponding design solution from the left onto the correct targets on the right Not all options are used
Select and Place:lead4pass 352-001 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 352-001 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus.
Which three principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose three.)
A. Increase the number of SSIDs to load-balance the client traffic.
B. Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle.
C. Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual- band clients are used.
D. Enable 802.11ag channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell
throughput.
E. Use directional antennas to achieve better sector separation channel reuse.
F. Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels.
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the various types or DevOps tools are true? (Choose two)
A. Puppet requires the installation of a master (server) and agents (clients) architecture for configuring systems.
B. Salt cannot communicate with clients through general SSH, it use minions client agents only.
C. Puppet and Chef are written in Python, Python skills are a must to operate these two.
D. Ansible does not require agent node installation and uses SSH for performing all tasks.
E. Chef and Puppet are much more attuned to the needs of system administrators.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 4
Which DCI technology utilizes a “flood and learn” technique to populate the Layer 2 forwarding table?
A. OTV
B. E-VPN
C. VPLS
D. LISP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which open source message broker is in the Cisco Cloud Center?
A. Apache kafka
B. HornetQ
C. RabbitMQ
D. Fuse Message Broker
E. Oracle Message Broker
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two options are reasons for designing a large OSPF network with multiple areas connected to the backbone?
(Choose 2)
A. Reduce the number of routes within an area.
B. Route tagging capability.
C. Enhance failure detection.
D. Simplify logical topology.
E. Reduces SPF algorithm runs.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Your company will attach to a new Gigabit Ethernet-based wide area network from the local service provider for remote
connectivity. Each connection will have a 150 Mb/s committed information rate. For the design of this new service,
which QoS mechanism should be used to ensure low packet loss toward the service provider network?
A. shaping
B. policing
C. CBWFQ
D. RED
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Currently a service provider provides IPv4 traceroute services between MPLS PE routers. The provider wants to
implement IPv6 with MPLS 6PE/6VPE and then provide parallel IPv6 traceroute services between MPLS PE routers.
Which two design solutions provide this service? (Choose two.)
A. The P routers must support ICMPv6.
B. The PE routers must support ICMPv6.
C. The P routers must support full IPv6.
D. The PE routers must support full IPv6.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9
Which technology, implemented on aggregation-edge nodes at the aggregation layer, provides per-tenant isolation at
Layer 3, with separate dedicated per-tenant routing and forwarding tables on the inside interfaces of firewall contexts?
A. VLAN
B. VXLAN
C. VRF-lite
D. VDC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
AS100 and AS200 each have two peering points in different parts of their network. AS100 would like to use one of the
links and keep the other link as backup. What should be changed for the design inside AS100 for prefixes received from
AS200?
A. MED
B. weight
C. AS-PATH
D. local preference
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
On a large-scale DMVPN network design, what are two DMVPN characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN can interoperate with other vendors\\’ equipment.
B. DMVPN supports multicast replication at the hub.
C. DMVPN supports non-IP protocols.
D. DMVPN supports dynamic partial- or full-mesh tunnels.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about connecting an IP multicast domain that is operating in PIM dense mode to a PIM sparse
mode domain?
A. The interconnection must be made at the rendezvous point of the PIM sparse mode domain.
B. The connection can be made at any location in the network, as PIM sparse mode will inter-operate seamlessly with
PIM dense mode.
C. PIM dense mode and sparse mode domains are not inter-operable and cannot be connected.
D. The connection can be made at any location in the network, but PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode cannot inter-
operate; IGMP must be used to provide the interconnection.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
When a multiprotocol environment is designed to have several routers redistribute among the routing domains, how can
routing loops be avoided?
A. by using the AS-PATH attribute
B. by using route tags
C. by activating split horizon
D. by implementing spanning tree
Correct Answer: B

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CCNA Collaboration

Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps, 210-065 exam practice test questions and answers

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QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose two.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. Jabber for Windows
E. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Correct Answer: AB
Table 1. Features and Benefits of Cisco TMSPElead4pass 210-065 exam question q1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707901.html

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. An SX80 endpoint has been deployed using dual screens and a third display is being added. To
which connector must the third display be connected?lead4pass 210-065 exam question q2

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q3

For Cisco TelePresence endpoints with TC7.0 software, configuration backup and restore appears where?
A. Call Control tab
B. Configuration tab
C. Diagnostics tab
D. Maintenance tab
E. Home tab
Correct Answer: D

lead4pass 210-065 exam question q3-1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/quick-set-sx20/tc7/administration-guide/sx20-quickset-administrator-guide-tc70.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
When dialing, in a format that is consistent for all users of a system, a user who has multiple TelePresence video
devices associated, what are the three minimum requirements that must be configured for the user to be able to receive
video calls? (Choose three.)
A. The Active Directory server must be installed.
B. Ensure that the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server has the FindMe option key installed.
C. Ensure that FindMe is set to on.
D. The NTP server must be set up.
E. The Cisco TelePresence Management Suite must be installed.
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q5

Under which tab can the registration status for the endpoint be found?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
Correct Answer: A
Menu availability and user roles A user account possess one or more user roles. Three user roles are defined:
ADMIN, AUDIT, and USER. Note that the default admin user holds all three roles.

lead4pass 210-065 exam question q5-1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/codec-c-
series/tc4/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc42.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
In a Cisco TelePresence conference that is hosted on a Cisco MCU, a single pane shows the person who is currently
talking. What is this pane called?
A. The host
B. The active participant
C. The active speaker
D. The active floor
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
When you register the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 video system with the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager, what is the most important item for the registration to be input into the server?
A. the IPv4 address of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
B. the IP telephone media access control address that is used to manage the system
C. the media access control address of the Ethernet port of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
D. The Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 will always automatically register with the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager server.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
A technician is trying to troubleshoot real-time call information from the CLI of a VCS. Which command should the
technician enter?
A. xstatus
B. xconfiguration
C. xfeedback
D. xhistory
E. xcommand
Correct Answer: C
xFeedback: these commands provide information about events as they happen, such as calls and registrations.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/admin_guide/Cisco_VCS_Comma
nd_Reference_X6.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q9

Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate
Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B lead4pass 210-065 exam question q9-1

http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/Cisco_VCS_Multiway_Deploym
ent_Guide_X6.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q10

Which two of these can cause the phone status error icon that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service are not available.
B. The username and password in Cisco Jabber phone services are misconfigured.
C. The Cisco Jabber initial audio and video settings need to be set.
D. There is no DN configured for the Cisco Unified Client Services Framework in Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
E. The Cisco Jabber does not have the correct phone button template and hence cannot register to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
F. The called user presence status is unknown.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 11
Which path should you follow to initiate a Cisco Telepresence System 1310-65 camera calibration procedure?
A. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Setup > Show Focus Target
B. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Cameras > Setup > Calibrate
C. Hardware Setup > Start > Cameras > Setup > Show Focus Target
D. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Cameras > Show Camera Target
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which ad hoc multipoint feature is supported only when properly configured and when the endpoint is registered to the
Cisco VCS Multisite?
A. Multiway
B. WebEx enabled Cisco TelePresence
C. Collaboration Meeting Room
D. Cisco MCU
E. Cisco TelePresence Server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A voice engineer is setting up a Cisco 4431 Integrated Services Router with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express. To enable voice features for SIP endpoints, which command must the engineer enter?
A. voice service voip
B. ip voice
C. telephony-service
D. voice vlan
Correct Answer: C

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Free test Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You are a network administrator tasked with configuring the device security mode for a single device. What is the result
of your configuring the new device security mode in the phone configuration window of Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. a rebuild of the device configuration .xml file
B. an automatic reboot of the entire cluster
C. an automatic connection to the security mode database
D. a rebuild of the device configuration .exe file
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the
error “No New Phone to Add” appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-phone
B. No service phone-reg
C. SIP-UA no auto-reg-phone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
How can an end user be defined as a manager in the CAR tool?
A. Configure a Manager ID field in end user configuration
B. Add the end user to the Standard CCM Manager group
C. Check the Manager check box in the LDAP directory
D. Enable an end user as a manager in the CAR tool
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.pass4itsure 210-060 exam question q5

pass4itsure 210-060 exam question q5-1

A new phone has been added to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager but is not registering properly. What is
causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be the default
B. phonei_css is the incorrect calling search space2
C. 9971 Phones do not support SIP
D. The location Hub_None has not been activated
E. MAC address is incorrect
Correct Answer: E
The hostname is a unique, fixed name that is automatically assigned to the phone based on its MAC address.
However, here we see that the configured MAC address is 8478ACF71D1F, but the hostname is shown on the 9971
Phone Information diagram shows the hostname as 8478ACE71D1F.

 

QUESTION 6
An end user has made more attempts to log in than allowed, using the wrong voice-mail pin. The user has been locked
out. Which submenu does an administrator select to unlock the pin?
A. Change password
B. Password settings
C. Message settings
D. Mailbox
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
When you configure a T1 CAS PSTN Interface, which command instructs the router to receive its interface clocking from
the service provider?
A. inecode b8zs
B. clock source line
C. ds0-group 1 timeslots 1-24
D. clock source internal
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Two IP phones configured in the same office have a phone call in progress when the Call Manager they are registered
to fails. Which result is true?
A. The call remains active, and the Cisco IP Phones enable SIP proxy mode for RTP.
B. The call disconnects after the RTP/RTCP keepalive between the IP phones and Call Manager fails.
C. The call remains active, but features such as MOH and Transfer are unavailable for the rest of the call.
D. The call is immediately disconnected.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on the Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is not a source for Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. Cisco Unified CM database
B. Cisco Unified Presence database
C. Cisco Unified CM RTMT counters
D. Cisco Unified CM CDR/CAR
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring the brightness on a Cisco SX10 endpoint with default configuration via the CLU with the
configuration Cameras Camera 1 Brightness Level: 1 command but notices no changes to the local display brightness
level. Which is the reason for the issue?
A. The default brightness level is 1.
B. The display brightness was changed from the remote end.
C. The brightness mode must be set to manual.
D. The codec must be rebooted for the changes to take effect.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory
numbers?
A. Alternate Extension
B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A new customer requests an upgrade to its current TelePresence Content Server. Before issuing a quote, the presales
engineer would like to know the software version and option keys that are currently installed on this server. Which menu
option path could be used to find this information?
A. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Logs
B. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Overview
C. Management Tab>Configuration>Windows Server
D. Management Tab>Configuration>Site Settings
Correct Answer: D

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