How to get both the Microsoft MD-101 and MD-100 exams and get Microsoft 365 certification.

Modern Desktop Administrator Associate exam

Should I take both MD-101 and MD-100 exams for Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate certification?

I’ve collected a lot of questions about Microsoft exams! So I’m happy to solve the questions raised on Quora! MD-100 exam “Windows 10″, MD-101 exam”Managing Modern Desktops”!

Below I will share the latest Microsoft Role-based (MD-100, MD-101) exam practice questions and exam PDF and online videos to help you improve your exam experience and test skills!

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MD-100 – Windows 10

MD-101 – Managing Modern Desktops

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Exam MD-100: Windows 10 – Learn | Microsoft Docs: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/md-100

Skills measured:

  • Deploy Windows (15-20%)
  • Manage devices and data (35-40%)
  • Configure connectivity (15-20%)
  • Maintain Windows (25-30%)

Exam MD-101: Managing Modern Desktops: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/md-101

Skills measured:

  • Deploy and update operating systems (35-40%)
  • Manage policies and profiles (25-30%)
  • Manage and protect devices (20-25%)
  • Manage apps and data (10-15%)

Latest Updates Microsoft Modern Desktop Administrator Associate Exam Practice Questions and Answers

[Part]Microsoft MD-100 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The MD-100 exam practice questions and answers are shared free by Lead4pass.

QUESTION 1

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You need to configure User Account Control (UAC) to prompt administrators for their credentials.
Which settings should you modify?
A. Administrators Properties in Local Users and Groups
B. User Account Control Settings in Control Panel
C. Security Options in Local Group Policy Editor
D. User Rights Assignment in Local Group Policy Editor

Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/user-account-control/user-accountcontrol-security-policy-settings

QUESTION 2

You plan to deploy Windows 10 to 100 secure computers.
You need to select a version of Windows 10 that meets the following requirements:
1.
Uses Microsoft Edge as the default browser
2.
Minimizes the attack surface on the computer
3.
Supports joining Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
4.
Only allows the installation of applications from the Microsoft Store
What is the best version to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.
A. Windows 10 Pro in S mode
B. Windows 10 Home in S mode
C. Windows 10 Pro
D. Windows 10 Enterprise

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-za/windows/compare

QUESTION 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You deploy Windows 10 to a computer named Computer1.
Computer1 contains a folder named C:\Folder1. Folder1 contains multiple documents.
You need to ensure that you can recover the files in Folder1 by using the Previous Versions tab.
Solution: You set up Backup and Restore (Windows 7) and include Folder1 in the backup.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/17128/windows-8-file-history

QUESTION 4

You have a computer that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a folder named C:\ISOs that is shared in ISOs. You
run several commands on the computer as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass md-100 exam questions q4

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass md-100 exam questions q4-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass md-100 exam questions q4-2

QUESTION 5

You have several computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup and have BitLocker Drive
Encryption (BitLocker) enabled.
You join the computers to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to ensure that you can recover the BitLocker recovery key for the computers from Azure AD.
What should you do first?
A. Disable BitLocker.
B. Add a BitLocker key protector.
C. Suspend BitLocker.
D. Disable the TMP chip.

Correct Answer: B

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/bitlocker/prepare-yourorganization-for-bitlocker-planning-and-policies#bitlocker-key-protectors

QUESTION 6

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the users shown in the
following table.

lead4pass md-100 exam questions q6

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 and is in a workgroup.
A local standard user on Computer1 named User1 joins the computer to the domain and uses the credentials of User2
when prompted.
You need to ensure that you can rename Computer1 as Computer33.
Solution: You use the credentials of User3 on Computer1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

Renaming a domain-joined computer will also rename the computer account in the domain. To do this, you need
domain administrator privileges.
User3 is a domain administrator.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directory-securitygroups#bkmk-domainadmins

QUESTION 7

You have a computer that runs Windows 10 and contains the folders shown in the following table.

lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass md-100 exam questions q7-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/access-control

QUESTION 8

You need to meet the technical requirement for the IT department users. What should you do first?
A. Issue computer certificates
B. Distribute USB keys to the IT department users.
C. Enable screen saver and configure a timeout.
D. Turn on Bluetooth.

Correct Answer: D

References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-za/help/4028111/windows-lock-your-windows-10-pc-automatically-whenyou-step-away-from

QUESTION 9

You have 20 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are in a workgroup.
You need to create a local user named Admin1 on all the computers. Admin1 must be a member of the Remote
Management Users group.
What should you do?
A. From Windows Configuration Designer, create a provisioning package, and then run the provisioning package on
each computer.
B. Create a script that runs the New-ADUser cmdlet and the Set-AdGroup cmdlet.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that contains the Local User Group Policy preference.
D. Create a script that runs the New-MsolUser cmdlet and the Add-ADComputerServiceAccount cmdlet.

Correct Answer: C

References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askpfeplat/2017/11/06/use-group-policy-preferences-to-manage-thelocal-administrator-group/

QUESTION 10

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
On Computer1, you turn on File History.
You need to protect a folder named D:\Folder1 by using File History.
What should you do?
A. From File Explorer, modify the General settings of D:\Folder1
B. From the File Settings app, configure the Backup settings
C. From the Settings app, configure the Recovery settings
D. From File History in Control Panel, configure the Select drive settings

Correct Answer: B

[Part]Microsoft MD-101 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The MD-101 exam practice questions and answers are shared free by Lead4pass.

QUESTION 1

You have 100 devices that run Windows 10 and are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to prevent users from joining their home computer to Azure AD.
What should you do?
A. From the Device enrollment blade in the Intune admin center, modify the Enrollment restriction settings.
B. From the Devices blade in the Azure Active Directory admin center, modify the Device settings.
C. From the Device enrollment blade in the Intune admin center, modify the Device enrollment manages settings.
D. From the Mobility (MDM and MAM) blade in the Azure Active Directory admin center, modify the Microsoft Intune
enrollment settings.

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/enrollment-restrictions-set

QUESTION 2

Your company uses Windows AutoPilot to configure the computer settings of computers issued to users.
A user named User1 has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. User1 leaves the company.
You plan to transfer the computer to a user named User2.
You need to ensure that when User2 first starts the computer, User2 is prompted to select the language setting and to
agree to the license agreement.
Solution: You create a new Windows AutoPilot self-deploying deployment profile.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/self-deploying

QUESTION 3

Your company has a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
Computer1 was used by a user who left the company.
You plan to repurpose Computer1 and assign the computer to a new user. You need to redeploy Computer1 by using
Windows AutoPilot.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q3-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/enrollment-autopilot https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-reset

QUESTION 4

You have 200 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (AD) and
enrolled in Microsoft Intune.
You need to enable self-service password reset on the sign-in screen.
Which settings should you configure from the Microsoft Intune blade?
A. Device configuration
B. Device compliance
C. Device enrollment
D. Conditional access

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/tutorial-sspr-windows

QUESTION 5

What is the maximum number of devices that User1 and User2 can enroll in Intune? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q5

QUESTION 6

You have computers that run Windows 10 and are configured by using Windows AutoPilot.
A user performs the following tasks on a computer named Computer1:
Creates a VPN connection to the corporate network
Installs a Microsoft Store app named App1
Connects to a Wi-Fi network
You perform a Windows AutoPilot Reset on Computer1.
What will be the state of the computer when the user signs in? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q6-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot-reset

QUESTION 7

You have 500 computers that run Windows 10. The computers are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD) and enrolled in Microsoft Intune.
You plan to distribute certificates to the computers by using the Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol (SCEP).
You have the servers shown in the following table.

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q7

NDES issues certificates from the subordinate CA.
You are configuring a device profile as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
You need to complete the SCEP profile.

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q7-1

A. Server1
B. Server2
C. Server3
D. Server4

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

What should you upgrade before you can configure the environment to support co-management?
A. the domain functional level
B. Configuration Manager
C. the domain controllers
D. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)

Correct Answer: B

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/comanage/tutorial-co-manage-clients

QUESTION 9

You have a Microsoft Azure Log Analytics workplace that collects all the event logs from the computers at your
company. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You need to view the events collected from
Computer1. Which query should you run in Log Analytics?
A. Event | where Computer = = “Computer1”
B. ETWEvent | where SourceSystem = = “Computer1”
C. ETWEvent | where Computer = = “Computer1”
D. Event | where SourceSystem = = “Computer1”

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/data-sources-windows-events

QUESTION 10
You have a hybrid Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), the tenant.
You configure a Windows Autopilot deployment profile as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:

lead4pass md-101 exam questions q10-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/enrollment-autopilot

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[2020.6] Latest Atlassian ACP-100 Exam Practice Questions and ACP-100 Exam Dumps

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Latest Updates Atlassian ACP-100 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

A public relations firm is using Jira to track projects by client engagement. Each new engagement with a client is tracked
in a new project. Users are complaining that it is hard to navigate and search hundreds of projects. View the Exhibit,
which shows a sample of their projects on the View All Projects page.

Identify three project settings that will immediately improve the viewing of projects on this page and the search results in
Issue Navigator. (Choose three.)
A. Add URLs for search engine optimization.
B. Add project tags.
C. Add client logos as project avatars.
D. Create project categories by the client.
E. Add project descriptions.
F. Set the project lead to the appropriate Project Administrator.

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2

A project lead wants to conduct historical trend analysis, but she is worried that older issues are being updated in a way
that inhibits their comparison. She wants to take a snapshot of the data in her project at regular intervals so she can
compare different periods.
Which tool will help meet this need?
A. Backup Jira data
B. Project Export
C. JQL Results Snapshot
D. Issue Filter Export to CSV

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Your marketing group is using Jira to track media print advertisements. They would like to track TV and radio
commercials as well.
The same team handles all three formats, but each format requires a unique workflow. The team would like to keep
everything on the same dashboard and they will also be using the same permissions, notifications, and screens.
Without using third-party apps, how should you configure Jira to meet these requirements?
A. Clone the existing project and key for TV and Radio.
B. Copy the existing permissions and notification schemes, and associate them with new projects for TV and Radio.
C. Create a sub-component hierarchy.
D. Create two new projects for TV and Radio.
E. Add TV and Radio into the existing project as components.
F. Use issue types of Print, Radio, and TV in the existing project.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A project manager wants to stay aware of the support requests that are being raised in his project.
He wants to know if:
the team is able to handle the number of issues that are being raised in the project
there are team members who work on more than 2 issues at any given time there are sets of issues that need
significantly more time to resolve when compared to others over time Which three gadgets will show him the information
he needs? (Choose three.)
A. Activity Stream
B. Created vs. Resolved Chart
C. Two Dimensional Filter Statistics
D. Resolution Time
E. Labels

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 5

A team requests updates to the behavior of some fields in the project. The project uses three issue types: Problem,
Incident, and Change. The desired configuration is shown below: Which configuration update will meet the
requirements?

trainingolives acp-100 q5

A. Configure individual screens for each issue type and update the priority scheme.
B. Configure individual field configuration for each custom field and update the priority scheme.
C. Create unique field contexts for each issue type for the desired fields.
D. Configure individual field configurations for each issue type.
E. Configure individual field contexts for each custom field and update the priority scheme.
F. Configure individual screens for any combination of issue operation and issue type.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6

Your administration project is configured as follows:
there are three issue types that all share a single workflow all project users are members of the Project Users project
role all members of the Administrators project role have the Set Issue Security permission project administrators are the
only users who can create issues
You are tasked with replacing the Project Users project role with three distinct team project roles, each solely
responsible for one of the issue types.
Which additional requirement can be met by individual workflows per issue type?
A. The system field Component/s needs to be required when creating two out of the three existing issue types.
B. Each issue type needs a dedicated set of individual project components.
C. The reporter and current assignee of each issue should always have access to view it.
D. Only members of the dedicated teams should be able to view and work on the issues they are responsible for.
E. Individual notifications should be sent out depending on the selected issue type.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

You are tidying up a Jira project and find that the following two issue types are being used.
Task
Assignment
They seem very similar. If both are not needed, you could convert all existing Assignment issues in the project into Task
issues and remove the Assignment issue type from the project.
Which project configurations would you check to see if it is necessary to keep the two as separate issue types instead?
(Choose three.)
A. Issue Security Levels
B. Field Configurations
C. Components
D. Permissions
E. Workflows
F. Field Contexts

Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 8

A project has hundreds of old completed issues which are cluttering up the reports, searches, and dashboards. The
project administrator has the following requirements:
1.
He wants to hide the old issues.
2.
He wants to unhide issues if needed.
3.
He wants to control whether he himself sees the hidden issues, so they do not clutter his own daily work. Which three
configurations, when combined, will meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. security level
B. project permission
C. workflow condition
D. project role
E. global permission
F. group

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9

Contractors will begin using your Jira instance. You receive the following requirements for them:

trainingolives acp-100 q9

How should you manage global permissions for the contractor’s user group?
A. Grant them the Browse User’s permission.
B. Grant them the Bulk Change permission.
C. Grant them the Jira System Administrators permission.
D. Grant them the Manage Group Filter Subscriptions permission.
E. Grant them the Create Shared Objects permission.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiracloud/managing-project-permissions-776636362.html

QUESTION 10

A team of technical writers works in the WRITE project. The project uses a single, shared workflow.
To better match the team\’s way of working they request a workflow change:
The initial status of their project\’s workflow should be changed from Open to Awaiting Inspiration.
You navigate to the Workflows section of the administration, update the Name of the status in the workflow designer and
publish your change.
What are the two implications of this change? (Choose two.)
A. The workflow scheme for the WRITE project will need to be published before the change takes effect.
B. Awaiting Inspiration will be created as a new Status in Jira.
C. Transitions to the Awaiting Inspiration status will fail until the post functions for those transitions are updated.
D. Filters and Gadgets that referred to the Open status by name will be broken.
E. The Open Status will be changed to Awaiting Inspiration in all workflows using that status.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11

The operations team currently uses the OPS project to track their tasks. They have a new requirement to begin handling
change requests. Inspect the partial summary of the current OPS project configuration:

trainingolives acp-100 q11

Which two requirements would require creating a new project? (Choose two.)
A. Change requests will not use versions.
B. Change requests will have different component leads.
C. Change requests will have a different workflow.
D. Change requests will notify different people for all system events.
E. Change requests will require the Due Date field to be populated.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12

You have a project with several issue types, associated unique workflows, and a number of components.
The decision has been made to have all new issues assigned automatically.
To that end, you\’ve set default assignee(s) for the project lead, component leads, and removed the Assignee field from
the screens associated with the Create Issue operation.
One of the issue types is still being created without an Assignee.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The issue type\’s field configuration for Component/s is not set to Required.
B. The default assignee for the issues\’ component is still set to Unassign.
C. The post function Assign to Lead Developer is missing in the create transition.
D. Users creating this issue type do not have the Assign Issue permission.
E. The assignee is being set to Unassigned in the first post-function of the create transition.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13

You needed to replace the legacy Jira group all-staff-Europe with a newly created all-staff-global group.
You created the new group and you migrated all users to the new group.
Then you deleted the legacy group.
Which four problems might users report after the change? (Choose four.)
A. Filter subscriptions send out errors instead of issues statistics.
B. Workflow transitions are hidden from certain users.
C. Users are not able to perform bulk change operations.
D. Users are not able to log in to Jira anymore.
E. Comments that were restricted to the legacy group are lost.
F. Filter results return an incorrect number of issues.

Correct Answer: BCEF

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Oracle Database SQL | 1Z0-071 – Oracle University: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-sql/pexam_1Z0-071

Latest Updates Oracle 1Z0-071 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

View the Exhibit and examine the description of the ORDERS table.

trainingolives 1z0-071 q1

Which two WHERE clause conditions demonstrate the correct usage of conversion functions? (Choose two.)
A. WHERE order_date_IN ( TO_DATE(\’OCT 21 2003\’,\’MON DD YYYY\’), TO_CHAR(\’NOV 21 2003\’,\’MON DD
YYYY\’) )
B. WHERE order_date > TO_CHAR(ADD_MONTHS(SYSDATE,6),\’MON DD YYYY\’)
C. WHERE TO_CHAR(order_date,\’MON DD YYYY\’) = \’JAN 20 2003\’
D. WHERE order_date > TO_DATE(\’JUL 10 2006\’,\’MON DD YYYY\’)

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2

Examine the structure of the SALES table.

trainingolives 1z0-071 q2

Examine this statement:

trainingolives 1z0-071 q2-1

Which two statements are true about the SALES1 table? (Choose two.)
A. It will not be created because the column-specified names in the SELECT and CREATE TABLE clauses do not
match.
B. It will have NOT NULL constraints on the selected columns which had those constraints in the SALES table.
C. It will not be created because of the invalid WHERE clause.
D. It is created with no rows.
E. It has PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints on the selected columns which had those constraints in the SALES
table.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3

In which three situations does a transaction complete?
A. when a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed
B. when a DELETE statement is executed
C. when a ROLLBACK command is executed
D. when a data definition language (DDL) statement is executed
E. when a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction

Correct Answer: CDE

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/transact.htm

QUESTION 4

View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PROMOTIONS table.

trainingolives 1z0-071 q4

PROMO_BEGIN_DATE is stored in the default date format, dd-mon-rr.
You need to produce a report that provides the name, cost, and start date of all promos in the POST category that were
launched before January 1, 2000.
Which SQL statement would you use?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = \’post\’ AND
promo_begin_date
B. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category LIKE \’P%\’
AND promo_begin_date
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_cost LIKE \’post%\’
AND promo_begin_date
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category LIKE
\’%post%\’ AND promo_begin_date

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Examine the types and examples of a relationship that follow:
1 One-to-one a) teacher to Student 2 One-to-many b) Employees to Manager 3 Many-to-one c) Person to SSN 4 Many-to-many d) Customers to Products
Which option indicates correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
D. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table: Which query requires explicit data type conversion?

trainingolives 1z0-071 q6

A. SELECT join_date FROM employees WHERE join_date > \’10-02-2018\’;

B. SELECT salary +

C. SELECT SUBSTR(join_date, 1, 2) ?10 FROM employees;

D. SELECT join_date + 20\\' FROM employees;

E. SELECT join_date || ` || salary FROM employees;

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which statement is true regarding the default behavior of the ORDER BY clause?
A. In a character sort, the values are case-sensitive.
B. NULLs are not included in the sort operation.
C. Only columns that are specified in the SELECT list can be used in the ORDER BY clause.
D. Numeric values are displayed in descending order if they have decimal positions.
E. Column aliases can be used in the ORDER BY clause.

Correct Answer: A

The ORDER BY clause performs a case sensitive sorting with character values.

QUESTION 8

Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT product_name || \’it\’s not available for order\’
FROM product_information
WHERE product_status = \’obsolete\’;
You received the following error while executing the above query:
ERROR
ORA-01756: quoted string not properly terminated
What would you do to execute the query successfully?
A. Remove the single quotation marks enclosing the character literal string in the SELECT clause
B. Use the escape character to negate the single quotation mark within the literal character string in the SELECT
clause
C. Enclose the character literal string in the SELECT clause within double quotation marks
D. Use the Oracle (q) operator and delimiter to allow the use of a single quotation mark within the literal character string
in the SELECT clause

Correct Answer: D

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/sql_elements003.htm

QUESTION 9

Examine this description of the PRODUCTS table:

trainingolives 1z0-071 q9

Rows exist in this table with data in all the columns. You put the PRODUCTS table in read-only mode.
Which three commands execute successfully on PRODUCTS?
A. DROP TABLE products;
B. ALTER TABLE products DROP COLUMN expiry_date;
C. ALTER TABLE products SET UNUSED (expiry_date);
D. ALTER TABLE products DROP UNUSED COLUMNS;
E. CREATE INDEX price_idx ON products (price);
F. TRUNCATE TABLE products;

Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 10

View the exhibit and examine the ORDERS table.

trainingolives 1z0-071 q10

The ORDERS table contains data and all orders have been assigned a customer ID. Which statement would add a NOT
NULL constraint to the CUSTOMER_ID column?
A. ALTER TABLE orders MODIFY CONSTRAINT orders_cust_id_nn NOT NULL (customer_id);
B. ALTER TABLE orders ADD CONSTRAINT orders_cust_id_nn NOT NULL (customer_id);
C. ALTER TABLE orders MODIFY customer_id CONSTRAINT orders_cust_nn NOT NULL (customer_id);
D. ALTER TABLE orders ADD customer_id NUMBER(6)CONSTRAINT orders_cust_id_nn NOT NULL;

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which four statements are true regarding primary and foreign key constraints and the effect they can have on table
data? (Choose four.)
A. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to remain in the child table at the time the parent row is deleted
B. Only the primary key can be defined at the column and table level
C. The foreign key columns and parent table primary key columns must have the same names
D. A table can have only one primary key and one foreign key
E. A table can have only one primary key but multiple foreign keys
F. Primary key and foreign key constraints can be defined at both the column and table level
G. It is possible for child rows that have a foreign key to be deleted automatically from the child table at the time the
parent row is deleted

Correct Answer: CEFG

QUESTION 12

Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT TRUNC (ROUND(156.00, -1),-1) FROM DUAL;
What would be the outcome?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 160
D. 16
E. 100

Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/functions135.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/olap.111/b28126/dml_functions_2127.htm

QUESTION 13

No-user-defined locks are used in your database.
Which three are true about Transaction Control Language (TCL)?
A. COMMIT erases all the transaction\’s savepoints and releases its locks.
B. ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT undoes the transaction\’s changes made since the named savepoint and then ends
the transaction.
C. COMMIT ends the transaction and makes all its changes permanent.
D. ROLLBACK without the TO SAVEPOINT clause undoes all the transaction\’s changes but does not erase its
savepoints.
E. ROLLBACK without the TO SAVEPOINT clause undoes all the transaction\’s changes but does not release its
locks.
F. ROLLBACK without the TO SAVEPOINT clause undoes all the transaction\’s changes, releases its locks, and erases
its savepoints.

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A58617_01/server.804/a58233/trans.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/statements_9021.htm

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LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands is used to rotate, compress, and mail system logs?
A. rotatelog
B. striplog
C. syslogd –rotate
D. logrotate
E. logger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Depending on the host\’s configuration, which of the following files can be used to turn on and off network services running on a host? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /etc/profile
B. /etc/services
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/xinetd.conf
E. /etc/host.conf
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands shows the current color depth of the X Server?
A. xcd
B. xcdepth
C. xwininfo
D. xcolordepth
E. cat /etc/X11
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system? LX0-104 dumps
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the dig command?
A. It can be used as a tool for querying DNS servers.
B. It can be used for searching through indexed file content.
C. It can be used to look for open ports on a system.
D. It can be used to ping all known hosts on the current subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In order to discover the link layer address of the device that owns a specific IPv4 or IPv6 address, which mechanism is used?
A. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use ARP.
B. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use Neighbor Discovery.
C. IPv4 uses ARP while IPv6 uses Neighbor Discovery.
D. IPv4 uses Neighbor Discovery while IPv6 uses ARP.
E. Both IPv4 and IPv6 can use either ARP or Neighbor Discovery depending on the network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? LX0-104 dumps (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To prevent a specific user from scheduling tasks with at, what should the administrator do?
A. Add the specific user to /etc/at.allow file.
B. Add the specific user to [deny] section in the /etc/atd.conf file.
C. Add the specific user to /etc/at.deny file.
D. Add the specific user to nojobs group.
E. Run the following: atd –deny [user].
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
How many bits make up an IPv6 address? LX0-104 dumps
A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which command will set the local machine\’s timezone to UTC?
A. cat UTC andgt; /etc/timezone
B. ln -s /usr/share/zoneinfo/UTC /etc/localtime
C. date –timezone=UTC
D. mv /usr/timezone/UTC /etc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is true regarding public and private SSH keys? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Several different public keys may be generated for the same private key.
B. The private key must never be revealed to anyone.
C. For each user account, there is exactly one key pair that can be used to log into that account.
D. To maintain the private key\’s confidentiality, the SSH key pair must be created by its owner.
E. To allow remote logins, the user\’s private key must be copied to the remote server.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is true regarding the mail queue of a mail server? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The messages in the queue must be readable by all users as the queue may contain messages for several users.
B. According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS) the queue is located at /var/mail/spool.
C. There is exactly one mail queue per user which holds all new messages for that user before they are moved to other folders by the user\’s mail client.
D. The queue holds all messages that are processed by the mail server but have not yet been completely delivered.
E. The content of the mail queue can be queried by the command mailq.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
For accessibility assistance, which of the following programs is an on-screen keyboard?
A. xkb
B. atkb
C. GOK
D. xOSK
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following fields can be found in the /etc/group file? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. The list of users that belong to the group.
B. The home directory of the group.
C. The name of the group.
D. The description of the group.
E. The password of the group.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 23
Given the following routing table
Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 192.168.178.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 9 0 0 wlan0
Why does the command route add default gw 192.168.1.1 fail?
A. Because there is no route to 192.168.1.1.
B. Because only one route can exist at a time.
C. Because there is already a default route.
D. Because default routes can not be set manually.
E. Because default routes must be set with ifconfig.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is observed and corrected by a NTP client? LX0-104 dumps
A. The skew in time between the system clock and the hardware clock.
B. The skew in time between the system clock and the reference clock.
C. Changes in the time zone of the current computer\’s location.
D. Adjustments needed to support Daylight Saving Time.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which command makes the shell variable named VARIABLE visible to subshells?
A. export $VARIABLE
B. export VARIABLE
C. set $VARIABLE
D. set VARIABLE
E. env VARIABLE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do shadow passwords improve the password security in comparison to standard passwd passwords?
A. Shadow passwords are stored in plain text and can be checked for weak passwords.
B. Every shadow password is valid for 45 days and must be changed afterwards.
C. The system\’s host key is used to strongly encrypt all shadow passwords.
D. Shadow passwords are always combined with a public key that has to match the user\’s private key.
E. Regular users do not have access to the password hashes of shadow passwords.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What output will the command seq 10 produce?
A. A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B. The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C. The numbers 0 through 9 with one number per line.
D. The number 10 to standard output.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
What is true regarding the file ~/.forward?
A. As it is owned by the MTA and not writable by the user, it must be edited using the editaliases command.
B. After editing ~/.forward the user must run newaliases to make the mail server aware of the changes.
C. Using ~/.forward, root may configure any email address whereas all other users may configure only their own addresses.
D. When configured correctly, ~/.forward can be used to forward each incoming mail to more than one other recipient.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is NTP?
A. A more secure protocol replacement for FTP.
B. A protocol for synchronizing time on computers.
C. A routing aid for finding next hops on a network.
D. A simple tunnelling protocol for computers behind firewalls.
Correct Answer: B

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This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or purchasing cloud based solutions and services or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services, as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational level knowledge around cloud services. Technical IT experience is not required however some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.

This exam can be taken as an optional first step in learning about cloud services and how those concepts are exemplified by Microsoft Azure. It can be taken as a precursor to Microsoft Azure or Microsoft cloud services exams. While it would be a beneficial first step, validating foundational level knowledge, taking this exam is not a pre-requisite before taking any other Azure-based certifications.

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QUESTION 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. 

You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. 

Solution: You modify an Azure Traffic Manager profile. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. 

You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. 

Solution: You modify an Azure firewall. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your company plans to purchase Azure. 

The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers

by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. 

Solution: Recommend a Premier support plan. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: A 

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/ 

QUESTION 4

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. 

When you are implementing a software as a service (SaaS) solution, you are responsible for configuring high

availability. 

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the

statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. 

A. No change is needed. 

B. defining scalability rules 

C. installing the SaaS solution 

D. configuring the SaaS solution 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 5

What are two characteristics of the public cloud? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each

correct selection is worth one point. 

A. dedicated hardware 

B. unsecured connections 

C. limited storage 

D. metered pricing 

E. self-service management 

Correct Answer: DE 

QUESTION 6

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. 

You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. 

Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Chrome OS and uses Azure Cloud Shell. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 7

Which Azure service should you use to correlate events from multiple resources into a centralized repository? 

A. Azure Event Hubs 

B. Azure Analysis Services 

C. Azure Monitor 

D. Azure Log Analytics 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 8

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. 

When planning to migrate a public website to Azure, you must plan to pay monthly usage costs. 

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the

statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. 

A. No change is needed 

B. Deploy a VPN 

C. pay to transfer all the website data to Azure 

D. reduce the number of connections to the website 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 9

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. 

You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. 

Solution: You modify a DDoS protection plan. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 10

Your company plans to request an architectural review of an Azure environment from Microsoft. 

The company currently has a Basic support plan. 

You need to recommend a new support plan for the company. The solution must minimize costs. 

Which support plan should you recommend? 

A. Premier 

B. Developer 

C. Professional Direct 

D. Standard 

Correct Answer: A 

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/ 

QUESTION 11

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. 

You have several virtual machines in an Azure subscription. You create a new subscription. The virtual machines

cannot be moved to the new subscription. 

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the

statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. 

A. No change is needed 

B. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription 

C. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription only if they are all in the same resource group 

D. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription only if they run Windows Server 2016. 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 12

What is required to use Azure Cost Management? 

A. a Dev/Test subscription 

B. Software Assurance 

C. an Enterprise Agreement (EA) 

D. a pay-as-you-go subscription 

Correct Answer: C 

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/azure/cost-management/overview-cost-mgt 

QUESTION 13

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your company plans to purchase Azure. 

The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers

by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. 

Solution: Recommend a Standard support plan. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: A 

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

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High quality CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to performance?
A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. CLO-001 dumps
Which of the following job responsibilities of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parameters
C. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that are Internet accessible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted on cloud provided infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an essential step in the start-up process of a virtual server?
A. Identify the location of the physical machine
B. Select identity providers
C. Select security credentials
D. Select the application set that will run on it
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
An entrepreneur has decided to open an e-commerce site to complement their retail store. After researching their options, they decide that a PaaS solution will be sufficient. CLO-001 dumps To reduce upfront cost, the entrepreneur intends to build the site themselves. Which of the following skill-sets will be needed?
A. Firewall Administration
B. Web-Server Administration
C. Security standard development
D. Application development
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
An organization is replacing its core insurance platform. The solution is made up of internally hosted insurance systems and applications hosted in the cloud.
Which of the following activities is part of service transition?
A. Ensure that as part of the change management process the events are sequenced to include the cloud provider and that they have resources available.
B. Ensure that monitoring controls are implemented by the cloud provider to ensures that the system is highly available and that performance can be measured.
C. Ensure that the SLA’s for availability have been well documented and agreed to as part of the contract arrangement between the two companies.
D. Ensure that the capacity and storage is available to meet the current and future demands of the solution of the cloud provider’s infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The business benefits of mobile computing are enhanced MOST by which of the following cloud service characteristics?
A. Hardware independence
B. Security
C. Distribution over the Internet
D. Time to market
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the cloud characteristics that speeds up development, deployment, and overall time to market?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Cloud bursting
C. Universal access
D. Network pooling
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which of the following must be implemented by a cloud provider to ensure that different entities can authenticate and share basic user accounting information?
A. Scalability
B. Federation
C. Virtualization
D. Self service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a differentiating characteristic of private cloud solutions compared to public cloud solutions?
A. Private cloud solutions are dedicated for use by a single organization.
B. Private cloud solutions are never accessible via the public Internet.
C. Private cloud solutions do not provide incremental scalability.
D. Private cloud solutions save considerably more money than a public cloud solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following describes the commonality between cloud computing and outsourcing?
A. Shift from CAPEX to OPEX
B. Reduced compliance cost
C. Simplified security management
D. Reduced system architecture complexity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
How can an organization successfully implement an IaaS strategy?
A. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines
B. Continuously execute performance analytics
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access
D. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
An organization has just gone to a start-up cloud provider for its entire infrastructure. Which of the following is one of the new organizational roles required at the cloud provider?
A. Supply manager
B. Commercial manager
C. Infrastructure project manager
D. Credit risk manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a service level management tool aimed at quantifying a cloud offerings’ performance?
A. Mean Time to Recovery
B. Risk Assessment
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. Request for Proposal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A company has hired a third party vendor to provide email and spam/anti-malware filtering services. CLO-001 dumps The type of cloud service provided by the vendor is BEST described as which of the following?
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk to business continuity when using an external cloud service provider?
A. Unauthorizedaccess to customer data
B. Vendor being purchased
C. Virtual server failure
D. Vendor going out of business
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Cloud computing has the greatest benefit for which of the following user populations?
A. User populations which steadily increase in size.
B. User populations that vary and are unpredictable.
C. User populations that are of fixed size.
D. User populations that vary in size on a seasonal basis.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the difference between the –remove and the –purge action with the dpkg command?
A. –remove removes the program, –purge also removes the config files.
B. –remove only removes the program, –purge only removes the config files.
C. –remove removes a package, –purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. –remove removes only the package file itself, –purge removes all files related to the package.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to searching a particular number of subdirectories? LX0-101 dumps
A. –max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands will allow an administrator to adjust the number of mounts after which an existing filesystem will be checked by e2fsck?
A. debugfs
B. dumpe2fs
C. mode2fs
D. tune2fs
E. mke2fs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 9
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. LX0-101 dumps (Please provide the fill name with full path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 11
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address.
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access? 1Y0-351 dumps
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. 1Y0-351 dumps The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site.
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for secured web traffic that does NOT terminate at the NetScaler device.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Source IP
B. Cookie Insert
C. URL Passive
D. SRCIPDESTIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has two sites that host six cache web servers that are used to promote sales information.
Which feature on the NetScaler should an engineer enable to provide faster application performance and also provide additional capacity if the demand increases for one site?
A. Load balancing
B. Integrated Cache
C. Responder Policy
D. Content switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. 1Y0-351 dumps The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Magento
Certifications: Magento Certified Developer Plus
Exam Name: Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam
Exam Code: M70-201
Total Questions: 136 Q&As
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QUESTION 1
In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?
Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default
CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router
Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Standard
Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin
A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default
B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin
C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default
D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Helper
C. Model
D. Resource model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
To implement a standard Adminhtml form for a custom data model, which two of the following must you do? (Choose two)
A. Declare your module’s block class prefix in the config.xml file.
B. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget_Form.
C. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Abstract.
D. Create sub-classes of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Element_Abstract for each form field to be presented.
E. Add a set of configuration values in the module’s config-xml defining the form fields to be displayed.
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 4
Which statement correctly describes order state and order status? M70-201 dumps
A. State and status are independent properties of the order.
B. The status is a child of the state.
C. State represents the general state of the order, while status works on item level.
D. An order doesn’t have a status, only a state. Status is a property of an invoice, shipment, and credit memo.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay () method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. Pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. Capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?
A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered template can be overridden via layout XML.
B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by name.
C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is rendered.
D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template
E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an output block.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following API calls allows you to fetch the list of related products using the native Magento API?
A. catalog_product_link.list, with arguments $type=’related’, $product_id
B. catalog_product.list, with arguments $type=’related’, $product_id
C. catalog_product_related.list, with argument $product_id
D. catalog_product_option.list, with arguments $type=’related’, $product_id
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following actions will enable logging via calls to debugData() on a native Magento payment method model?
A. Set the protected property $_debug of the payment model to true
B. Set the config node default/payment/debug/ [method code] to 1
C. Call Mage::register (‘payment_method_debug_’ . [method code], true);
D. Set the config node default/payment/ [method code]/debug to 1
E. Call setDebug(true) on the payment method model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are creating a custom CMS module named Achme_Cms. Which one of the following is the correct XML required to override a controller from the Mage_Cms module in your Achme_Cms module? M70-201 dumps
M70-201 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two public methods must be implemented in a functional custom shipping method directly extending Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Abstract and also implementing Mage_Shipping_Model_Carrier_Interface? (Choose two)
A. collectRates()
B. getAllowedMethods()
C. isTrackingAvailable()
D. isFixed()
E. getConfigData()
F. checkAvailableShipCountries()
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 11
M70-201 dumps Which of the following is the default setup script class name?
A. Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Setup
B. Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup_Default
C. Mage_Setup_Model_Resource_Default
D. Mage Core Model Resource Setup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You need to implement private sales utilizing Website Restrictions as provided by the Enterprise Edition of Magento, and when customers are not logged in, you want them to be redirected to a landing page. Where in the Magento admin would you find the settings needed for this task?
A. System -> Configuration -> Enterprise -> Website Restrictions
B. System -> Configuration -> General -> Website Restrictions
C. System -> Manage Stores -> Edit Website
D. System -> Permissions -> Website Restrictions
Correct Answer: B

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[High Quality VMware Dumps] 2017 Latest VMware 2V0-621D Dumps Exam Questions And Answers, The Best 2V0-621D Dumps PDF Materials And Youtube

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is upgrading a vCenter Server Appliance and wants to ensure that all the prerequisites are met.
What action must be taken before upgrading the vCenter Server Appliance?
A. Install the Client Integration Plug-in.
B. Install the database client.
C. Install the ODBC connector.
D. Install the Update Manager Plug-in.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What three supported methods can be used to upgrade a host from ESXi 5.x to ESXi 6.x? (Choose three.) 2V0-621D pdf
A. vSphere Update Manager
B. vihostupdate
C. esxcli
D. vSphere Auto Deploy
E. esxupdate
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621D dumps
An administrator is configuring a storage device as shown in the Exhibit.
What is the expected effect on the stated device after running the command? 2V0-621D dumps
A. I/O will rotate on all storage targets regardless of port group state.
B. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are Active Optimized state only.
C. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are Active Unoptimized state only.
D. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are on Available Nodes only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621D dumps
An administrator has configured a vSphere 6.x DRS cluster as shown in the Exhibit. 2V0-621D pdf
Based on the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Test Resource Pool with a 6 GB Memory Reservation.
B. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Dev Resource Pool with a 8 GB Memory Reservation.
C. A virtual machine from both the Test Resource Pool and the Dev Resource Pool can be powered on with a 4 GB Memory Reservation.
D. No more virtual machines can be powered on due to insufficient resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which condition would cause a vCenter Server installation to fail when installing on a Windows virtual machine?
A. The virtual machine does not have at least four vCPUs.
B. The virtual machine is running Windows Server 2008.
C. The virtual machine has an E1000 network device.
D. The virtual machine does not have 16GB of RAM.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An administrator notices that the time on an ESXi 6.x host is incorrect.
Which two actions should the administrator take to correct this issue? (Choose two.) 2V0-621D dumps
A. Modify the time for the host using the vSphere client.
B. Correct the NTP settings in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
C. Configure NTP from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Use the vicfg-ntp command from the vSphere Management Appliance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An administrator is able to manage an ESXi 6.x host connected to vCenter Server using the vSphere Web Client but is unable to connect to the host directly.
Which action should the administrator take to correct this behavior?
A. Restart management agents on the ESXi host.
B. Disable Lockdown Mode on the ESXi host through vCenter Server.
C. Disable the ESXi firewall with the command esxcli network firewall unload.
D. Reboot the ESXi host.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
An administrator wants to power on a virtual machine (VM) while connected to an ESXi host using SSH.
The VM has the following Name and ID:
VM Name = SQL001
VMID = 12345
Which command would successfully power on the virtual machine?
A. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
B. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
C. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
D. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator is observing slow performance of the vCenter Inventory Service and observes the entries from the wrapper.log file:
Exception in thread “tomcat-exec-2” java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap spaceException in thread 2V0-621D pdf
“http-bio-0.0.0.0-10443-Acceptor-0” java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space
What should the administrator do to resolve the problem?
A. Increase the memory resources of the vCenter Server.
B. Increase the values using cloudvm-ram-size.
C. Increase the memory resouces of the Platform Services Controller.
D. Increase the wrapper.java.maxmemory value in wrapper.conf.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three troubleshooting actions should an administrator take to address slow performance when deploying a virtual machine template? (Choose three.) 2V0-621D dumps
A. Increase network throughput by adding additional uplinks to the vSwitch.
B. Change the destination datastore or volume for the virtual machine template.
C. Configure a Provisioning Traffic vmkernel port to perform the deployment operation.
D. Reduce the size of the virtual machine template’s virtual disk.
E. Deploy the virtual machine template to the cluster and allow Distributed Resource Scheduler to register the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: ABC

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