Microsoft

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Exam 98-367: Security fundamentals – Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-367.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understand security layers (25–30%)
  • Understand operating system security (35-40%)
  • Understand network security (20–25%)
  • Understand security software (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam validates that a candidate has fundamental security knowledge and skills. It can serve as a stepping stone to the Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) exams. It is recommended that candidates become familiar with the concepts and the technologies described here by taking relevant training courses. Candidates are expected to have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, anti-malware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.

Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
The Windows Firewall protects computers from unauthorized network connections.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Email viruses
B. Phishing scams
C. Unencrypted network access
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following operating systems have Windows Security Health Agent (SHA) on computers and report their
status to the Security Health Validator (SHV)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Windows 2000 Professional
B. Windows Vista Business
C. Windows XP Service Pack 3
D. Windows 7 Professional
Correct Answer: BCD
Answer: B, D, and C and correct.
The following operating systems have Security Health Agent (SHA) on computers and report their status to the Security
Health Validator (SHV):
Windows Vista Business Windows 7 Professional Windows XP Service Pack 3

 

QUESTION 3
Mark works as a Network Administrator for TechMart Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Mark wants to
implement a method to ensure that the mobile devices are in a good state of security health when they are trying to
access the corporate network. Which of the following is a control or strategy that Mark will implement to assure the
security health?
A. TCP/IP protocol
B. Kerberos
C. Single Sign On
D. Network Access Protection
Correct Answer: D
Network Access Protection (NAP) is a set of operating system components included with the Windows Server 2008 and
Windows Vista/7 operating systems. It ensures that the client computers on a private network meet administrator-
defined requirements for system health. NAP policies define the required configuration and update status for a client
computer\\’s operating system and critical software. For example, an administrator can set policies that computers might
be required to have antivirus software with the latest virus definition installed and current operating system updates.
Using NAP, a network administrator can enforce compliance with health requirements for the client computers
connection to the network. NAP helps network administrators to reduce the risk caused by improperly configured client
computers that might be exposed to viruses and other malicious software. Answer: C is incorrect. Single sign-on (SSO)
is defined as a mechanism in which a single action of user authentication and authorization is used to allow a user to
access all computers and systems where he got a access permission, without entering passwords for multiple times.
Answer: B is incorrect. Kerberos is defined as a secure method used for authenticating a request for a service in a
computer network. Answer: A is incorrect. TCP/IP protocol is used to define the rule computers are required to follow for
communicating with each other over the internet.

 

QUESTION 4
Mark works as a Security Administrator for TechMart Inc. The company has a a Windows-based network. Mark has
gone through a security audit for ensuring that the technical system is secure and protected. While this audit, he
identified many areas that need improvement. He wants to minimize the risk for potential security threats by educating
team members in the area of social engineering, and providing basic security principle knowledge and he also wants to
stress the Con?dentiality, Integrity, and Availability triangle in his training. For this purpose, he plans to implement the
principle of least privilege. In which of the following way, it will affect his team members?
A. They are required to ask administrator every time when they want to access resources.
B. They are granted with a smallest set of privileges to the resources
C. They are required to log on as administrator to have access to their resources
D. The current resource access of team members will not change.
Correct Answer: B
The principle of least privilege gives a user only those privileges that are essential to do his/her work. In information
security, computer science, and other fields, the principle of least privilege, is also known as the principle of minimal
privilege or least privilege. It define that in a particular abstraction layer of a computing environment, every module has
to be able to access only the information and resources that are essential for its legitimate purpose. It needs that each
subject in a system be granted the most restrictive set of privileges required for the authorized tasks.

 

QUESTION 5
What does implementing Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) allow a company to manage?
A. Shared private encryption key updates
B. Updates to Group Policy Objects
C. Active Directory server replication
D. Windows updates for workstations and servers
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which technology enables you to filter communications between a program and the Internet?
A. RADIUS server
B. Antivirus software
C. Software firewall
D. BitLocker To Go
Correct Answer: C
There are two types of firewalls the Hardware Firewall and the Software Firewall. A Software Firewall is a software
program and a Hardware Firewall is a piece of hardware. Both have the same objective of filtering communications over
a system.

 

QUESTION 7
Kerberos prevents:
A. Denial of Service attacks
B. spyware distribution
C. file corruption
D. replay attacks
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
On which of the following is the level of security set for an Internet zone applied?
A. To the sites that you have specifically indicated as the ones that you trust.
B. To all the Websites by default.
C. To the sites that might potentially damage your computer, or your information.
D. To the Websites and content that are stored on a corporate or business network.
Correct Answer: B
The level of security set for an Internet zone is applied to all the Websites by default. Answer: C is incorrect. The level of
security set for the restricted sites is applied to the sites that might potentially damage your computer, or your
information.
Answer: D is incorrect. The level of security set for the local intranet zone is applied to the Websites and content that are
stored on a corporate or business network. Answer:
A is incorrect. The level of security set for the trusted sites is applied to sites that you have specifically indicated as the
ones that you trust.

 

QUESTION 9
The purpose of User Account Control (UAC) is to:
A. Encrypt the user\\’s account
B. Limit the privileges of software
C. Secure your data from corruption
D. Facilitate Internet filtering
Correct Answer: B
User Account Control (UAC) is a technology and security infrastructure introduced with Microsoft\\’s Windows machines.
It aims to improve the security of Microsoft Windows by limiting application software to standard user privileges until an
administrator authorizes an increase or elevation. In this way, only applications trusted by the user may receive
administrative privileges, and malware should be kept from compromising the operating system.

 

QUESTION 10
Which type of firewall allows for inspection of all characteristics of a packet?
A. NAT
B. Stateful
C. Stateless
D. Windows Defender
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stateful_firewall

 

QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To determine which action, if any, to take on an inbound message, anti-spam and antivirus recipient filtering inspects
the IP address of the remote server that is trying to send messages.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. connection
B. sender
C. content
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/SecurityCompliance/configure-the-connection-filter-policy

 

QUESTION 12
Keeping a server updated:
A. Maximizes network efficiency
B. Fixes security holes
C. Speeds up folder access
D. Synchronizes the server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are required to enable for preventing the users from downloading and installing software from the
Internet? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Software restriction policies
B. PTR record
C. User Account Control
D. Anti-Virus software
Correct Answer: AC
Answer: C and A
It is required to enable User Account Control on all Windows 7 computers and to configure software restriction policies
to prevent the users from downloading and installing software from the Internet.

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Microsoft

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Trainingolives shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft Database 98-364 exam “Microsoft Database Fundamentals”
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Exam 98-364: Database Fundamentals – Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-364.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understanding core database concepts (20–25%)
  • Create database objects (20–25%)
  • Manipulate data (25–30%)
  • Understand data storage (15–20%)
  • Administer a database (10–15%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam are seeking to prove introductory knowledge of and skills with databases, including relational databases, such as Microsoft SQL Server. It is recommended that candidates be familiar with the concepts of and have hands-on experience with the technologies described here, either by taking relevant training courses or by working with tutorials and samples available on MSDN and in Microsoft Visual Studio. Although minimal hands-on experience with the technologies is recommended, job experience is not assumed for these exams.

Microsoft Database 98-364 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A view can be used to:
A. Save an extra copy of data stored in a separate table.
B. Limit access to specific rows or columns of data in a table.
C. Ensure referential integrity.
D. Save historical data before deleting it from the base table.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What is one difference between an update statement and a delete statement?
A. An update statement can change only one row.
B. A delete statement cannot use a where clause.
C. An update statement does not remove rows from a table.
D. A delete statement works only within a stored procedure.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which permission does a user need in order to run a stored procedure?
A. EXECUTE
B. ALLOW
C. CALL
D. RUN
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You have a table named Employee that includes four columns. You execute the following statement:
SELECT * FROM Employee
Which columns are returned?
A. all columns
B. only the last column
C. only the first column
D. only the first and last columns
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road (RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL, Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data: You execute the following statement: INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234,
36)

lead4pass 98-364 exam question q5

What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You have a table that contains the following data.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q6

Which database term is used to describe the relationship between ProductID and ProductCategory?
A. Cohort
B. Relationally dependent
C. Deterministic
D. Functionally dependent
E. Compositional
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement should you use to remove a foreign key?
A. ALTER TABLE
B. DELETE TABLE
C. DELETE FOREIGN KEY
D. ALTER FOREIGN KEY
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
You create the following table, which lists how many books you have on loan to your friends.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q8

Harry in San Francisco returns your books.
Which statement will update your table correctly?
A. UPDATE LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE (Name = \\’Harry\\’ AND City = \\’San Francisco\\’)
B. UPDATE LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE (Name = \\’Harry\\’ OR City = \\’San Francisco\\’)
C. UPDATE LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE (Name in \\’Harry\\’, \\’San Francisco\\’)
D. INSERT INTO LoanedBooks SET Books = 0 WHERE ID =
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You have two tables named Cars and Color as defined below. The two tables are related by ColorId.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q9

You run the following SQL statement: select:

lead4pass 98-364 exam question q9-1

How many rows does the SQL statement return?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
You need to delete a database table.
Which data definition language (DDL) keyword should you use?
A. ALTER
B. DELETE
C. DROP
D. TRUNCATE
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
The Product table contains the following data.lead4pass 98-364 exam question q11

You execute the following statement:
SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Product WHERE Quantity > 18
What is the value returned by this statement?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have two tables. Each table has three rows. You create a SQL query that uses a cross join. The query does not
include a WHERE clause.
Nine rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement corrector.
A. No change is needed
B. Zero
C. Three
D. Six
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
At 3:00 P.M. (1500 hours), you create a backup of your database. At 4:00 P.M. (1600 hours), you create a table named
Customer and import data into the table. At 5:00 P.M. (1700 hours), your server fails. You run a script to apply only the
3:00 P.M. backup to your database.
What is the result of the script?
A. The Customer table no longer exists.
B. The Customer table is unaffected.
C. The Customer table exists but has no data.
D. The script fails.
Correct Answer: A

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CCNA Security

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Test your Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 exam level

QUESTION 1
What configs are under crypto map? (Choose two)
A. set peer
B. set host
C. set transform-set
D. inerface
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
What is the only permitted operation for processing multicast traffic on zone-based firewalls?
A. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the self-zone.
B. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only between the self-zone and the internal zone.
C. Only control plane policing can protect the control plane against multicast traffic.
D. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the internal zone
Correct Answer: C
Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is NOT supported by Cisco Zone based firewalls OR Cisco Classic firewall.

 

QUESTION 3
Which port should (or would) be open if VPN NAT-T was enabled?
A. port 4500 outside interface
B. port 4500 in all interfaces where ipsec uses
C. port 500
D. port 500 outside interface
Correct Answer: B
NAT traversal: The encapsulation of IKE and ESP in UDP port 4500 enables these protocols to pass through a device
or firewall performing NAT. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Key_Exchange
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/64281/how-does-nat-t-work-ipsec

 

QUESTION 4
A. Remote peer was not able to encrypt the packet
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What type of firewall would use the given cofiguration line?lead4pass 210-260 exam question q5

A. a stateful firewall
B. a personal firewall
C. a proxy firewall
D. an application firewall
E. a stateless firewall
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which command initializes a lawful intercept view?
A. username cisco1 view lawful-intercept password cisco
B. parser view cisco li-view
C. li-view cisco user cisco1 password cisco
D. parser view li-view inclusive
Correct Answer: C
Before you initialize a lawful intercept view, ensure that the privilege level is set to 15 via the privilege command.
SUMMARY STEPS
1.
enable view
2.
configure terminal
3.
li-view li-password user username password password
4.
username lawful-intercept [name] [privilege privilege-level| view view-name] password password
5.
parser view view-name
6.
secret 5 encrypted-password
7.
name new-name

 

QUESTION 7
Which option is a key security component of an MDM deployment?
A. using MS-CHAPv2 as the primary EAP method.
B. using self-signed certificates to validate the server.
C. using network-specific installer packages
D. using an application tunnel by default.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose Two.)
A. They can modify the flow of traffic in transit.
B. They can access most network devices.
C. They can physically modify the network gateway.
D. They are used to perform man-in-the-middle attacks.
E. They protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address.
F. They use ARP poisoning.
Correct Answer: AD
DHCP spoofing occurs when an attacker attempts to respond to DHCP requests and trying to list themselves (spoofs)
as the default gateway or DNS server, hence, initiating a man in the middle attack. With that, it is possible that they can
intercept traffic from users before forwarding to the real gateway or perform DoS by flooding the real DHCP server with
request to choke ip address resources. https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/67229
https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/docs/DOC-24355

 

QUESTION 10
Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses TCP as its transport protocol.
B. It combines authentication and authorization.
C. Only the password is encrypted.
D. The TACACS+ header is unencrypted
E. It uses UDP as its transport protocol.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 11
What configuration allows AnyConnect to authenticate automatically establish a VPN session when a user logs in to the
computer?
A. proxy
B. Trusted Network Detection
C. transparent mode
D. always-on
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
You need to place these 7 options into HIPS and NIPS. Each section has 4 choices which means one out of these 7
options goes into both.
Select and Place:lead4pass 210-260 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 210-260 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement about college campus is true?
A. College campus has geographical position.
B. College campus Hasn`t got internet access.
C. College campus Has multiple subdomains.
Correct Answer: A

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CCIE

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-051 exam question q1

In this high-availability Cisco IM and Presence deployment with three subclusters, the first user is assigned to server 1A;
the second user is assigned to server 2A; and the third user is assigned to server 3A. Assume that the Cisco IM and
Presence is set to Active/Standby mode, to which server should the fourth user be assigned?
A. 1A
B. 3B
C. 1B
D. 2A
E. 3A
Correct Answer: A
This deployment model provides the same level of redundancy and high availability as outlined in the “Balanced
Redundant High-Availability Deployment” section in this chapter. The only difference is that users are not deployed in a
balanced fashion, but rather all reside on the primary server in the subcluster, and the backup server is there as a
standby option if a node failure occurs.

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement describes the Cisco best practice recommendation about priority queue bandwidth allocation in
relationship to the total link bandwidth when multiple strict priority LLQs are configured on the same router interface?
A. Each LLQ should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity.
B. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to two-thirds of the link bandwidth capacity.
C. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-half of the link bandwidth capacity.
D. The sum of all LLQs should be limited to one-third of the link bandwidth capacity.
E. Cisco does not recommend more than one strict priority LLQ per interface.
Correct Answer: D
Cisco Technical Marketing testing has shown a significant decrease in data application response times when Real-Time
traffic exceeds one-third of a link\\’s bandwidth capacity. Cisco IOS Software allows the abstraction (and, thus,
configuration) of multiple LLQs. Extensive testing and production-network customer deployments have shown that
limiting the sum of all LLQs to 33 percent is a conservative and safe design ratio for merging real- time applications with
data applications.

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-051 exam question q3

A VOIP engineer must configure QoS for the switch ports to remap PC traffic to COS 2 while allowing Cisco phone COS
values to be used on the network. Which three commands satisfy these requirements? (Choose three)
A. FastEthernet 0/15 mls qos cos 2
B. FastEthernet 0/15 No mls qos cos 4
C. FastEthernet 0/15 Switchport priority extend cos
D. FastEthernet 0/15 mls qos cos override
E. FastEthernet 0/15 no mls qos cos override
F. FastEthernet 0/15 no mls qos trust device cisco-phone
G. FastEthernet 0/15 no switchport priority extend trust
Correct Answer: AEG

 

QUESTION 4
Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?
A. required RAID configuration, when the TRC uses direct-attached storage
B. configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping
C. step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup
D. configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
E. server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) by name only; part numbers are not
included because they change over time
Correct Answer: A
Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the orderable part number
level.
Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) – including battery backup cache or SuperCap – when the TRC
uses DAS storage Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup. Design, installation and configuration of external
hardware is not included in TRC definition, such as:
Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for VMware software are not included in
TRC definition. Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may also be leveraged for
configuration details not included in the TRC definition.

 

QUESTION 5
Which statement about Cisco EnergyWise domain member neighbor formation is true?
A. Cisco EnergyWise supports static neighbors, but the neighbor relationship is only possible if a noncontiguous domain
member and a contiguous domain member have a static neighbor entry pointing to each other.
B. Cisco EnergyWise static neighbors can be formed even if domain members are not physically contiguous.
C. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but TCP protocols must be used.
D. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but they have a lower priority
compared to the autodiscovered members.
E. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members and the TCP or UDP protocol can
be used.
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Energy_Management/energywisedg.html?referring_site=smartnavRD#wp554384


QUESTION 6
How many music on hold servers are required in a trunk-only megacluster of Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Session Management Edition?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Correct Answer: A
When considering a megacluster deployment, the primary areas impacting capacity are as follows:
The megacluster may contain a total of 21 servers consisting of 16 subscribers, 2 TFTP servers, 2 music on hold (MoH)
servers (0 required), and 1 publisher
Nerver type must be either Cisco MCS 7845-I3/H3 class or Cisco Unified Computing
System (UCS) C-Series or B-Series using the 10K Open Virtualization Archive (OVA) template.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_5_1/ccmfeat/fsgd-851-cm/fsmoh.html#wp1027431

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco collaboration engineer is troubleshooting unexpected SIP call disconnects. Which three responses correspond
to the 5xx range (Chose three).
A. Server timeout
B. Bad request
C. Temporarily unavailable
D. Service unavailable
E. Forbidden
F. Version not supported
Correct Answer: ADF

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement describes virtual SNR DN configuration and behaviour on a Cisco Communication Manager Express
IOS router?
A. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that must be associated with multiple registered IP phones
B. Mid-calls on virtual SNR DN can be pulled back as soon as a phone becomes associated with the DN
C. SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone
D. A call that is ringing a virtual SNR DN prior to its association with a registered phone, cannot be answered by the
phone even after the association is made
E. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer is configuring QoS for a 100 Mb WAN link. An ISP SLA was signed to support 70% of the link while
maintaining a steady flow?
A. traffic shape rate 70000000 8750000 8750000
B. traffic shape rate 100000000 70000000 70000000
C. police cir 70000000 confirm – action transmit exceed – action drop
D. police 70000000 13125000 confirm – action transmit exceed – action drop
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express script media step can invoke a VXML application to retrieve and play
prompts on-demand from an off-box location?
A. Play Prompt step
B. Voice Browser step
C. Menu step
D. Recording step
E. Simple Recognition step
Correct Answer: B
CRA Voice Browser is fully integrated with the CRA Engine. You can use scripts designed in the CRA Editor to extend
VoiceXML applications by providing ICD (Integrated Contact Distribution) call control and resource management. For
example, you can use VoiceXML to build a speech dialog as a front end to collect information from the caller. You can
then pass this information to the CRA script, and when the agent receives the call, the information collected by
VoiceXML will be available. You use the Voice Browser step in the Media palette of the CRA Editor to invoke a
VoiceXML application. You can use the bundled voicebrowser.aef script as an example for creating scripts that invoke
VoiceXML. (You can create custom scripts to execute other steps in addition to VoiceXML.)

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-051 exam question q11

Which SIP response message should the TGW send if it cannot process the tunneled QSIG messages from the OGW?
A. 405 Method Not Allowed
B. 406 Not Acceptable
C. 412 Conditional Request Failed
D. 415 Unsupported Media Type
E. 485 Ambiguous
Correct Answer: D
Fallback from QSIG Tunneling
In some situations, QSIG tunneling will fail or need to fall back:
Remote party does not support multipart MIME body: In this case, the remote side sends a “415 Media Not Supported”
response. Upon receiving this response, OGW will fall back to normal mode and send an INVITE request without any
tunneled content. This procedure helps ensure that at least the basic call will work normally.
Remote party does not understand tunneled content: If the remote side does not support the tunneled content, it should
drop the tunneled content and continue as a normal call; because all essential parameters are present in the original
INVITE, the call can go through without the need for fallback.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/empowered-branch-solution/white_paper_c11_459092.html

 

QUESTION 12
A customer asks you to build a SIP/SIMPLE IM federation between a Cisco Unified Communication Manager IM and
Presence environment and a Microsoft Lync 2013 environment. The Lync administrator insists that TLS is used for the
federation and that the SSL certificate used by Cisco Unified Communication Manager IM and Presence is signed by
the private CA of the enterprise. Which certificate must be in the Certificate Signing Request to accommodate the Lync
administrator requirements?
A. cupxmpp
B. tomcat
C. cupxmpps2s
D. ipsec
E. cup
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
In Cisco Unity Connection, which three configuration dialog boxes can a user assign a search space? (Choose three.)
A. Routing Rule
B. Call Handler
C. Interview Handler
D. Contacts
E. Users
F. Port
G. Phone System
Correct Answer: ABE

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CCDE

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QUESTION 1
An enterprise customer has a national WAN network based on DMVPN over the Internet, with sites located throughout
the country. The customer has recently deployed VoIP throughout the entire network , and users report that it takes up
to 2 seconds to establish a telephone call to an IP telephone at another office network. Drag and drop the root cause
and the corresponding design solution from the left onto the correct targets on the right Not all options are used
Select and Place:lead4pass 352-001 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 352-001 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You have been asked to design a high-density wireless network for a university campus.
Which three principles would you apply in order to maximize the wireless network capacity? (Choose three.)
A. Increase the number of SSIDs to load-balance the client traffic.
B. Choose a high minimum data rate to reduce the duty cycle.
C. Make use of the 5-GHz band to reduce the spectrum utilization on 2.4 GHz when dual- band clients are used.
D. Enable 802.11ag channel bonding on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz to increase the maximum aggregated cell
throughput.
E. Use directional antennas to achieve better sector separation channel reuse.
F. Implement a four-channel design on 2.4 GHz to increase the number of available channels.
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the various types or DevOps tools are true? (Choose two)
A. Puppet requires the installation of a master (server) and agents (clients) architecture for configuring systems.
B. Salt cannot communicate with clients through general SSH, it use minions client agents only.
C. Puppet and Chef are written in Python, Python skills are a must to operate these two.
D. Ansible does not require agent node installation and uses SSH for performing all tasks.
E. Chef and Puppet are much more attuned to the needs of system administrators.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 4
Which DCI technology utilizes a “flood and learn” technique to populate the Layer 2 forwarding table?
A. OTV
B. E-VPN
C. VPLS
D. LISP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which open source message broker is in the Cisco Cloud Center?
A. Apache kafka
B. HornetQ
C. RabbitMQ
D. Fuse Message Broker
E. Oracle Message Broker
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two options are reasons for designing a large OSPF network with multiple areas connected to the backbone?
(Choose 2)
A. Reduce the number of routes within an area.
B. Route tagging capability.
C. Enhance failure detection.
D. Simplify logical topology.
E. Reduces SPF algorithm runs.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Your company will attach to a new Gigabit Ethernet-based wide area network from the local service provider for remote
connectivity. Each connection will have a 150 Mb/s committed information rate. For the design of this new service,
which QoS mechanism should be used to ensure low packet loss toward the service provider network?
A. shaping
B. policing
C. CBWFQ
D. RED
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Currently a service provider provides IPv4 traceroute services between MPLS PE routers. The provider wants to
implement IPv6 with MPLS 6PE/6VPE and then provide parallel IPv6 traceroute services between MPLS PE routers.
Which two design solutions provide this service? (Choose two.)
A. The P routers must support ICMPv6.
B. The PE routers must support ICMPv6.
C. The P routers must support full IPv6.
D. The PE routers must support full IPv6.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9
Which technology, implemented on aggregation-edge nodes at the aggregation layer, provides per-tenant isolation at
Layer 3, with separate dedicated per-tenant routing and forwarding tables on the inside interfaces of firewall contexts?
A. VLAN
B. VXLAN
C. VRF-lite
D. VDC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
AS100 and AS200 each have two peering points in different parts of their network. AS100 would like to use one of the
links and keep the other link as backup. What should be changed for the design inside AS100 for prefixes received from
AS200?
A. MED
B. weight
C. AS-PATH
D. local preference
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
On a large-scale DMVPN network design, what are two DMVPN characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN can interoperate with other vendors\\’ equipment.
B. DMVPN supports multicast replication at the hub.
C. DMVPN supports non-IP protocols.
D. DMVPN supports dynamic partial- or full-mesh tunnels.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about connecting an IP multicast domain that is operating in PIM dense mode to a PIM sparse
mode domain?
A. The interconnection must be made at the rendezvous point of the PIM sparse mode domain.
B. The connection can be made at any location in the network, as PIM sparse mode will inter-operate seamlessly with
PIM dense mode.
C. PIM dense mode and sparse mode domains are not inter-operable and cannot be connected.
D. The connection can be made at any location in the network, but PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode cannot inter-
operate; IGMP must be used to provide the interconnection.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
When a multiprotocol environment is designed to have several routers redistribute among the routing domains, how can
routing loops be avoided?
A. by using the AS-PATH attribute
B. by using route tags
C. by activating split horizon
D. by implementing spanning tree
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose two.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. Jabber for Windows
E. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Correct Answer: AB
Table 1. Features and Benefits of Cisco TMSPElead4pass 210-065 exam question q1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707901.html

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. An SX80 endpoint has been deployed using dual screens and a third display is being added. To
which connector must the third display be connected?lead4pass 210-065 exam question q2

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q3

For Cisco TelePresence endpoints with TC7.0 software, configuration backup and restore appears where?
A. Call Control tab
B. Configuration tab
C. Diagnostics tab
D. Maintenance tab
E. Home tab
Correct Answer: D

lead4pass 210-065 exam question q3-1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/quick-set-sx20/tc7/administration-guide/sx20-quickset-administrator-guide-tc70.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
When dialing, in a format that is consistent for all users of a system, a user who has multiple TelePresence video
devices associated, what are the three minimum requirements that must be configured for the user to be able to receive
video calls? (Choose three.)
A. The Active Directory server must be installed.
B. Ensure that the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server has the FindMe option key installed.
C. Ensure that FindMe is set to on.
D. The NTP server must be set up.
E. The Cisco TelePresence Management Suite must be installed.
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q5

Under which tab can the registration status for the endpoint be found?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
Correct Answer: A
Menu availability and user roles A user account possess one or more user roles. Three user roles are defined:
ADMIN, AUDIT, and USER. Note that the default admin user holds all three roles.

lead4pass 210-065 exam question q5-1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/codec-c-
series/tc4/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc42.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
In a Cisco TelePresence conference that is hosted on a Cisco MCU, a single pane shows the person who is currently
talking. What is this pane called?
A. The host
B. The active participant
C. The active speaker
D. The active floor
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
When you register the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 video system with the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager, what is the most important item for the registration to be input into the server?
A. the IPv4 address of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
B. the IP telephone media access control address that is used to manage the system
C. the media access control address of the Ethernet port of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
D. The Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 will always automatically register with the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager server.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
A technician is trying to troubleshoot real-time call information from the CLI of a VCS. Which command should the
technician enter?
A. xstatus
B. xconfiguration
C. xfeedback
D. xhistory
E. xcommand
Correct Answer: C
xFeedback: these commands provide information about events as they happen, such as calls and registrations.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/admin_guide/Cisco_VCS_Comma
nd_Reference_X6.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q9

Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate
Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B lead4pass 210-065 exam question q9-1

http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/Cisco_VCS_Multiway_Deploym
ent_Guide_X6.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q10

Which two of these can cause the phone status error icon that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service are not available.
B. The username and password in Cisco Jabber phone services are misconfigured.
C. The Cisco Jabber initial audio and video settings need to be set.
D. There is no DN configured for the Cisco Unified Client Services Framework in Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
E. The Cisco Jabber does not have the correct phone button template and hence cannot register to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
F. The called user presence status is unknown.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 11
Which path should you follow to initiate a Cisco Telepresence System 1310-65 camera calibration procedure?
A. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Setup > Show Focus Target
B. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Cameras > Setup > Calibrate
C. Hardware Setup > Start > Cameras > Setup > Show Focus Target
D. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Cameras > Show Camera Target
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which ad hoc multipoint feature is supported only when properly configured and when the endpoint is registered to the
Cisco VCS Multisite?
A. Multiway
B. WebEx enabled Cisco TelePresence
C. Collaboration Meeting Room
D. Cisco MCU
E. Cisco TelePresence Server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A voice engineer is setting up a Cisco 4431 Integrated Services Router with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express. To enable voice features for SIP endpoints, which command must the engineer enter?
A. voice service voip
B. ip voice
C. telephony-service
D. voice vlan
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are a network administrator tasked with configuring the device security mode for a single device. What is the result
of your configuring the new device security mode in the phone configuration window of Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. a rebuild of the device configuration .xml file
B. an automatic reboot of the entire cluster
C. an automatic connection to the security mode database
D. a rebuild of the device configuration .exe file
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the
error “No New Phone to Add” appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-phone
B. No service phone-reg
C. SIP-UA no auto-reg-phone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
How can an end user be defined as a manager in the CAR tool?
A. Configure a Manager ID field in end user configuration
B. Add the end user to the Standard CCM Manager group
C. Check the Manager check box in the LDAP directory
D. Enable an end user as a manager in the CAR tool
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.pass4itsure 210-060 exam question q5

pass4itsure 210-060 exam question q5-1

A new phone has been added to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager but is not registering properly. What is
causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be the default
B. phonei_css is the incorrect calling search space2
C. 9971 Phones do not support SIP
D. The location Hub_None has not been activated
E. MAC address is incorrect
Correct Answer: E
The hostname is a unique, fixed name that is automatically assigned to the phone based on its MAC address.
However, here we see that the configured MAC address is 8478ACF71D1F, but the hostname is shown on the 9971
Phone Information diagram shows the hostname as 8478ACE71D1F.

 

QUESTION 6
An end user has made more attempts to log in than allowed, using the wrong voice-mail pin. The user has been locked
out. Which submenu does an administrator select to unlock the pin?
A. Change password
B. Password settings
C. Message settings
D. Mailbox
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
When you configure a T1 CAS PSTN Interface, which command instructs the router to receive its interface clocking from
the service provider?
A. inecode b8zs
B. clock source line
C. ds0-group 1 timeslots 1-24
D. clock source internal
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Two IP phones configured in the same office have a phone call in progress when the Call Manager they are registered
to fails. Which result is true?
A. The call remains active, and the Cisco IP Phones enable SIP proxy mode for RTP.
B. The call disconnects after the RTP/RTCP keepalive between the IP phones and Call Manager fails.
C. The call remains active, but features such as MOH and Transfer are unavailable for the rest of the call.
D. The call is immediately disconnected.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on the Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is not a source for Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. Cisco Unified CM database
B. Cisco Unified Presence database
C. Cisco Unified CM RTMT counters
D. Cisco Unified CM CDR/CAR
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring the brightness on a Cisco SX10 endpoint with default configuration via the CLU with the
configuration Cameras Camera 1 Brightness Level: 1 command but notices no changes to the local display brightness
level. Which is the reason for the issue?
A. The default brightness level is 1.
B. The display brightness was changed from the remote end.
C. The brightness mode must be set to manual.
D. The codec must be rebooted for the changes to take effect.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory
numbers?
A. Alternate Extension
B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A new customer requests an upgrade to its current TelePresence Content Server. Before issuing a quote, the presales
engineer would like to know the software version and option keys that are currently installed on this server. Which menu
option path could be used to find this information?
A. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Logs
B. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Overview
C. Management Tab>Configuration>Windows Server
D. Management Tab>Configuration>Site Settings
Correct Answer: D

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This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or purchasing cloud based solutions and services or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services, as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational level knowledge around cloud services. Technical IT experience is not required however some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.

This exam can be taken as an optional first step in learning about cloud services and how those concepts are exemplified by Microsoft Azure. It can be taken as a precursor to Microsoft Azure or Microsoft cloud services exams. While it would be a beneficial first step, validating foundational level knowledge, taking this exam is not a pre-requisite before taking any other Azure-based certifications.

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QUESTION 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. 

You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. 

Solution: You modify an Azure Traffic Manager profile. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. 

You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. 

Solution: You modify an Azure firewall. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your company plans to purchase Azure. 

The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers

by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. 

Solution: Recommend a Premier support plan. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: A 

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/ 

 

QUESTION 4

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. 

When you are implementing a software as a service (SaaS) solution, you are responsible for configuring high

availability. 

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the

statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. 

A. No change is needed. 

B. defining scalability rules 

C. installing the SaaS solution 

D. configuring the SaaS solution 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 5

What are two characteristics of the public cloud? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each

correct selection is worth one point. 

A. dedicated hardware 

B. unsecured connections 

C. limited storage 

D. metered pricing 

E. self-service management 

Correct Answer: DE 

 

QUESTION 6

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources. 

You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script. 

Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Chrome OS and uses Azure Cloud Shell. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 7

Which Azure service should you use to correlate events from multiple resources into a centralized repository? 

A. Azure Event Hubs 

B. Azure Analysis Services 

C. Azure Monitor 

D. Azure Log Analytics 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 8

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. 

When planning to migrate a public website to Azure, you must plan to pay monthly usage costs. 

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the

statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. 

A. No change is needed 

B. Deploy a VPN 

C. pay to transfer all the website data to Azure 

D. reduce the number of connections to the website 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines. 

You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP. 

Solution: You modify a DDoS protection plan. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 10

Your company plans to request an architectural review of an Azure environment from Microsoft. 

The company currently has a Basic support plan. 

You need to recommend a new support plan for the company. The solution must minimize costs. 

Which support plan should you recommend? 

A. Premier 

B. Developer 

C. Professional Direct 

D. Standard 

Correct Answer: A 

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/ 

 

QUESTION 11

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. 

You have several virtual machines in an Azure subscription. You create a new subscription. The virtual machines

cannot be moved to the new subscription. 

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the

statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. 

A. No change is needed 

B. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription 

C. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription only if they are all in the same resource group 

D. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription only if they run Windows Server 2016. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 12

What is required to use Azure Cost Management? 

A. a Dev/Test subscription 

B. Software Assurance 

C. an Enterprise Agreement (EA) 

D. a pay-as-you-go subscription 

Correct Answer: C 

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/azure/cost-management/overview-cost-mgt 

 

QUESTION 13

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

Your company plans to purchase Azure. 

The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers

by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. 

Solution: Recommend a Standard support plan. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: A 

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

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Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 exam Dumps Practice Test – Micvce

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Latest effective Cisco 200-155 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two standards enable Ethernet to support FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. Priority Flow Control
B. Virtual1 Extensible LAN
C. Enhanced Transmission Selection
D. Address Resolution Protocol
E. virtual port channel and virtual device context
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 2
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A network architecture team is looking for a technology on Cisco Nexus switches that significantly simplifies extending
Layer 2 applications across distributed data centers. The team wants the Cisco Data Center Interconnect between sites
and without changing or reconfiguring the existing network design. Which technology should be used?
A. Multiprotocol Label Switching
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. virtual switching system
D. virtual port channel
E. Overlay Transport Virtualization
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
A Cisco DCS administrator is ready to cable two newly racked Fabric Interconnects. Which two cabling configurations
should be used for the heartbeat connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the Layer 1 portal Fabric Interconnect Ala me Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
B. Connect the Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect A to the Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
C. Connect the Layer 1 port of Fabric Interconnect A to the Layer 1 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
D. Keep the Layer 2 port of both Fabric Interconnects disconnected.
E. Connect the Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect A to the Layer 1 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 5
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
What is an advantage of cloud computing?
A. minimal downtime
B. limited control
C. vendor lock-in
D. cast savings
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message What
issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. VDCs cannot be created in global configuration mode.
B. The user is not a vdc-admin.
C. The user is not a member of the VDC Power Admin group.
D. The user is not a network-admin.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Fabric Path? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MOS 9500 Series directors
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
Which option is a benefit of Unified Fabric Delivery to an IT organization?
A. lower total cost of ownership
B. reduced memory requirements
C. increased storage capacity
D. improved security
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A UCS administrator has been tasked with creating a new server profile Which two pools can be used to assign Layer 2
interface information? (Choose two)
A. Server
B. Mac Address
C. IP address
D. UUD
E. WWN
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit below:

lead4pass 200-155 exam question q12

The figure shows CLI interface forVSAN configuration of Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which command is required to enter the configuration prompt for VSAN as shown in figure?
A. config t
B. vsan name
C. vsan
D. vsan database
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
Which statement about NPIV is true?
A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port
B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
C. NPIV requires a “write erase” and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.
D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which four components are part of the Cisco Data Center Nexus switching offering? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco 6000 Series Switch
B. Cisco ASR 9000
C. Cisco 1000v Switch
D. Cisco IOS Software
E. Cisco 4500E Switch
F. Cisco NX-OS Software
G. Cisco 6509-E Switch
H. Cisco Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: ACFH


QUESTION 16
A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zoneset named zoneset2, but the server is still unable to
access the shared storage. What configuration will resolve this issue?
A. zoneset activate zoneset2
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. zone default-zone permit vsan 2
D. zone copy active-zoneset full-zoneset
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC keepalive link
B. vPC control Iink
C. vPC management link
D. vPC peer link
E. vPC overlay link
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18
Which two chassis discovery policy settings allow far a UCS chassis to be connected to a pair of Fabric Interconnect
using only two physical connections\\’ (Choose two)
A. 4-link
B. 2-link
C. 8-link
D. 1-link
E. Platform-max
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 19
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose
three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG


QUESTION 20
How many VRFs are present in Cisco Nexus OS by default?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 22
A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch.
One design requirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention
from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. LAN Pin Groups
B. Port-Channels
C. System OoS Policy
D. Unified Ports
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
Which option describes Cisco\\’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
A customer deployed Cisco B200 blades with service profiles. The customer experiences an outage on one of the Cisco
B200 blades that will be replaced with a spare blade already in inventory. Which two steps should the customer take to
replace the failed blade? (Choose two.)
A. Disassociate the service profile from the failed blade.
B. Associate the service profile to the spare blade.
C. Create a new service profile for the spare blade.
D. Delete the service profile from the spare blade.
E. Create a new service profile template for the failed blade.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco DCNM
D. Cisco UCS server
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 26
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )
A. VZ Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. VI Port
E. VS Port
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 28
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 30
Which two adapters far Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual
interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. M71-KR
B. P71E
C. VIC-1225
D. P81E
E. VIC-1280
Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 1lead4pass 200-150 exam question q1Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)
A. regular fromat WWNs are being used
B. the command show flogl database was run
C. the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
D. registered name formate WWNs are being used
E. extended format WWNs are being used.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 2
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 3
Which advantage does the bidirectional Cisco QSFP 40-GBPs BiDi transceiver provide?
A. It supports a breakout connection with a 40-gigabit QSFP port on one end that connections to four 10-gigabit SDFP +
ports on the other end.
B. it supports link lengths up to 40 km over single-mode fiber with duplex line card connectors.
C. It supports dedicated fabric-extender transceiver modules that connect to fabric links ( that I, links between a fabric
extender and a parent switch).
D. It enables the reuses of the existing 10-gigabit duplex MMF infrastructure for migration to 40 gigabit Ethernet
connectivity.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 5
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
What happens when there is no entry in the Layer 2 CAM table that corresponds to the destination MAC address of an
incoming frame?
A. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in all VLANs.
B. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, except the port on which it is received.
C. The switch drops the frame.
D. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, including the port on which it is received.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
When you enter the feature npv command on a storage-capable switch from Cisco, what is the result?
A. N-Port Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
B. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port ID Virtualization.
C. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port Virtualization.
D. N-Port ID Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 9lead4pass 200-150 exam question q9Refer to the exhibit. NP uplink ports connected to the core NPIV switch do not come online and are stuck in an
initializing state. Which options is a cause for this behavior?
A. The upstream NP Ports and the downstream server F Ports on the NPV edge switch may not be in the same VSA.
B. The core switch has not been enabled for NPIV.
C. The upstream VSAN ports and the server ports are in full duplex mode.
D. Related VSAN identifier is not allowed on Virtual Port Channels toward the edge switch.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding FIP in FCoE enabled Storage Area Networks?.
A. It discovers and initializes converged network capable devices connected to an Ethernet cloud.
B. it uses a dedicated EtherType of 0xFFFF.
C. it reduces the number of network interface cards required to connect to disparate storage and IP networks.
D. It reduces the number of cables and switches.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D. NL port
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which situation will cause a switch to flood traffic out all of the ports on the switch?
A. The switch receives a destination MAC address of 0000.0000.0000
B. The switch receives a destination MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff
C. The switch receives a source MAC address of 0000.0000.0000
D. The switch\\’s TCAM reaches the MAC address limit.
E. The switch was configured in cut-through mode.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 14
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which statement describes the uses of zones in a VSAN?
A. Zones are configured at the fabric core.
B. An HBA or storage device can only belong to zone.
C. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic.
D. Zones are a group of sports within a single VSAN.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 16
On which two components of a router can a copy of a running-configuration file be saved manually by an engineer for
backup purposes? (Choose two.)
A. NVRAM
B. Flash
C. ROM
D. RAM
E. DRAM
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 17
Which description of a multiple-initiator target zone is true?
A. It uses more TCAM than a single-initiator single target zone.
B. It increases the number of zones.
C. It uses less TCM space than a single-initiator target zone.
D. It blocks RSCNs between initiators.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18lead4pass 200-150 exam question q18Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Which two naming formats are used to identify an iSCSI node? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. MAC
C. IPv6
D. IQN
E. EHA
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 21
Drag and drop the Ethernet UTP cable category on the left to the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q21Correct Answer: lead4pass 200-150 exam question q21-1

 

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-150 exam question q22What type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802 3 frame
B. TCP packet
C. UDP packet
D. Ethernet frame
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre devices behind a single FC address?
A. Fiber Channel over Ethernet
B. N-Port Virtualization
C. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
D. N-Port Identification Virtualization
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
A network administrator is tasked with creating a switched virtual interface for VLAN 100 on a new Cisco Nexus switch.
Which two commands does the network administrator need? (Choose two.)
A. feature interface-vlan
B. interface vlan 100
C. feature private-vlan
D. interface 100
E. interface mgmt 100
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-150 exam question q25You must attack a strong peripheral to a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch. Which type of port do you use?
A. E
B. F
C. TE
D. NP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 26
A network engineer is changing the boot process of a router from its original state to one that boots from ROMMON.
Which option in Cisco IOS should be changed?
A. config register number
B. RMON
C. bootflash settings
D. terminal history
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 27
What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1
redundancy using Ml-Series line card?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 28
Which two statements about a sipne and-leaf data center design are true? (Choose two.)
A. The design is a three-tier architecture.
B. The design is a two-tier architecture.
C. A spine switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center de
D. All spine switches connect directly to one another.
E. A leaf switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center design.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
Interface mgmt 0ip address 10.9.1.20/24
ip access-list line_110 permit ip 10.1.0.0/16 any20 deny ip any any
ip access-list line_210 permit ip 10.1.1.1/32 any20 permit ip 10.9.1.2/32 any30 permit ip 10.200.200.0/24 any
line vtyaccess-class line_1 in access-class line_2 out
Which host can securely to the switch by using SSH?
A. 10.1.15
B. 10.200.200.1
C. 10.2.1.1
D. 10.9.1.2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF

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