Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps, 210-065 exam practice test questions and answers

Real and effective Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps, online Cisco 210-065 exam practice test, free online download 210-065 pdf! Pass the 210-065 exam “Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices, Part 2 (CIVND2) 1.0”: https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html (414 Q&As) Follow me!
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Free test Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose two.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. Jabber for Windows
E. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Correct Answer: AB
Table 1. Features and Benefits of Cisco TMSPElead4pass 210-065 exam question q1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707901.html

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. An SX80 endpoint has been deployed using dual screens and a third display is being added. To
which connector must the third display be connected?lead4pass 210-065 exam question q2

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q3

For Cisco TelePresence endpoints with TC7.0 software, configuration backup and restore appears where?
A. Call Control tab
B. Configuration tab
C. Diagnostics tab
D. Maintenance tab
E. Home tab
Correct Answer: D

lead4pass 210-065 exam question q3-1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/quick-set-sx20/tc7/administration-guide/sx20-quickset-administrator-guide-tc70.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
When dialing, in a format that is consistent for all users of a system, a user who has multiple TelePresence video
devices associated, what are the three minimum requirements that must be configured for the user to be able to receive
video calls? (Choose three.)
A. The Active Directory server must be installed.
B. Ensure that the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server has the FindMe option key installed.
C. Ensure that FindMe is set to on.
D. The NTP server must be set up.
E. The Cisco TelePresence Management Suite must be installed.
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q5

Under which tab can the registration status for the endpoint be found?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
Correct Answer: A
Menu availability and user roles A user account possess one or more user roles. Three user roles are defined:
ADMIN, AUDIT, and USER. Note that the default admin user holds all three roles.

lead4pass 210-065 exam question q5-1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/codec-c-
series/tc4/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc42.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
In a Cisco TelePresence conference that is hosted on a Cisco MCU, a single pane shows the person who is currently
talking. What is this pane called?
A. The host
B. The active participant
C. The active speaker
D. The active floor
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
When you register the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 video system with the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager, what is the most important item for the registration to be input into the server?
A. the IPv4 address of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
B. the IP telephone media access control address that is used to manage the system
C. the media access control address of the Ethernet port of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
D. The Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 will always automatically register with the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager server.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
A technician is trying to troubleshoot real-time call information from the CLI of a VCS. Which command should the
technician enter?
A. xstatus
B. xconfiguration
C. xfeedback
D. xhistory
E. xcommand
Correct Answer: C
xFeedback: these commands provide information about events as they happen, such as calls and registrations.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/admin_guide/Cisco_VCS_Comma
nd_Reference_X6.pdf

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q9

Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate
Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B lead4pass 210-065 exam question q9-1

http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/Cisco_VCS_Multiway_Deploym
ent_Guide_X6.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-065 exam question q10

Which two of these can cause the phone status error icon that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service are not available.
B. The username and password in Cisco Jabber phone services are misconfigured.
C. The Cisco Jabber initial audio and video settings need to be set.
D. There is no DN configured for the Cisco Unified Client Services Framework in Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
E. The Cisco Jabber does not have the correct phone button template and hence cannot register to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
F. The called user presence status is unknown.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 11
Which path should you follow to initiate a Cisco Telepresence System 1310-65 camera calibration procedure?
A. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Setup > Show Focus Target
B. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Cameras > Setup > Calibrate
C. Hardware Setup > Start > Cameras > Setup > Show Focus Target
D. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Cameras > Show Camera Target
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which ad hoc multipoint feature is supported only when properly configured and when the endpoint is registered to the
Cisco VCS Multisite?
A. Multiway
B. WebEx enabled Cisco TelePresence
C. Collaboration Meeting Room
D. Cisco MCU
E. Cisco TelePresence Server
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A voice engineer is setting up a Cisco 4431 Integrated Services Router with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Express. To enable voice features for SIP endpoints, which command must the engineer enter?
A. voice service voip
B. ip voice
C. telephony-service
D. voice vlan
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps, 210-060 exam practice test questions and answers

lead4pass 210-060 dumps

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Free test Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You are a network administrator tasked with configuring the device security mode for a single device. What is the result
of your configuring the new device security mode in the phone configuration window of Cisco Unified Communications
Manager?
A. a rebuild of the device configuration .xml file
B. an automatic reboot of the entire cluster
C. an automatic connection to the security mode database
D. a rebuild of the device configuration .exe file
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the
error “No New Phone to Add” appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-phone
B. No service phone-reg
C. SIP-UA no auto-reg-phone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
How can an end user be defined as a manager in the CAR tool?
A. Configure a Manager ID field in end user configuration
B. Add the end user to the Standard CCM Manager group
C. Check the Manager check box in the LDAP directory
D. Enable an end user as a manager in the CAR tool
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.pass4itsure 210-060 exam question q5

pass4itsure 210-060 exam question q5-1

A new phone has been added to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager but is not registering properly. What is
causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be the default
B. phonei_css is the incorrect calling search space2
C. 9971 Phones do not support SIP
D. The location Hub_None has not been activated
E. MAC address is incorrect
Correct Answer: E
The hostname is a unique, fixed name that is automatically assigned to the phone based on its MAC address.
However, here we see that the configured MAC address is 8478ACF71D1F, but the hostname is shown on the 9971
Phone Information diagram shows the hostname as 8478ACE71D1F.

 

QUESTION 6
An end user has made more attempts to log in than allowed, using the wrong voice-mail pin. The user has been locked
out. Which submenu does an administrator select to unlock the pin?
A. Change password
B. Password settings
C. Message settings
D. Mailbox
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
When you configure a T1 CAS PSTN Interface, which command instructs the router to receive its interface clocking from
the service provider?
A. inecode b8zs
B. clock source line
C. ds0-group 1 timeslots 1-24
D. clock source internal
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Two IP phones configured in the same office have a phone call in progress when the Call Manager they are registered
to fails. Which result is true?
A. The call remains active, and the Cisco IP Phones enable SIP proxy mode for RTP.
B. The call disconnects after the RTP/RTCP keepalive between the IP phones and Call Manager fails.
C. The call remains active, but features such as MOH and Transfer are unavailable for the rest of the call.
D. The call is immediately disconnected.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on the Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is not a source for Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. Cisco Unified CM database
B. Cisco Unified Presence database
C. Cisco Unified CM RTMT counters
D. Cisco Unified CM CDR/CAR
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring the brightness on a Cisco SX10 endpoint with default configuration via the CLU with the
configuration Cameras Camera 1 Brightness Level: 1 command but notices no changes to the local display brightness
level. Which is the reason for the issue?
A. The default brightness level is 1.
B. The display brightness was changed from the remote end.
C. The brightness mode must be set to manual.
D. The codec must be rebooted for the changes to take effect.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory
numbers?
A. Alternate Extension
B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A new customer requests an upgrade to its current TelePresence Content Server. Before issuing a quote, the presales
engineer would like to know the software version and option keys that are currently installed on this server. Which menu
option path could be used to find this information?
A. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Logs
B. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Overview
C. Management Tab>Configuration>Windows Server
D. Management Tab>Configuration>Site Settings
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 exam Dumps Practice Test – Micvce

Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT) 6.2: 200-155 exam. Share the latest 200-155 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers. 200-155 pdf online Download, 200-155 YouTube video online learning to improve skills! Trainingolives share 30 Practice test questions for FREE! Get the full 200-155 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-155.html (Total questions:182 Q&A)

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Latest effective Cisco 200-155 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two standards enable Ethernet to support FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. Priority Flow Control
B. Virtual1 Extensible LAN
C. Enhanced Transmission Selection
D. Address Resolution Protocol
E. virtual port channel and virtual device context
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 2
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A network architecture team is looking for a technology on Cisco Nexus switches that significantly simplifies extending
Layer 2 applications across distributed data centers. The team wants the Cisco Data Center Interconnect between sites
and without changing or reconfiguring the existing network design. Which technology should be used?
A. Multiprotocol Label Switching
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. virtual switching system
D. virtual port channel
E. Overlay Transport Virtualization
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
A Cisco DCS administrator is ready to cable two newly racked Fabric Interconnects. Which two cabling configurations
should be used for the heartbeat connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the Layer 1 portal Fabric Interconnect Ala me Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
B. Connect the Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect A to the Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
C. Connect the Layer 1 port of Fabric Interconnect A to the Layer 1 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
D. Keep the Layer 2 port of both Fabric Interconnects disconnected.
E. Connect the Layer 2 port of Fabric Interconnect A to the Layer 1 port of Fabric Interconnect B.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 5
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
What is an advantage of cloud computing?
A. minimal downtime
B. limited control
C. vendor lock-in
D. cast savings
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message What
issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. VDCs cannot be created in global configuration mode.
B. The user is not a vdc-admin.
C. The user is not a member of the VDC Power Admin group.
D. The user is not a network-admin.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Fabric Path? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MOS 9500 Series directors
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
Which option is a benefit of Unified Fabric Delivery to an IT organization?
A. lower total cost of ownership
B. reduced memory requirements
C. increased storage capacity
D. improved security
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A UCS administrator has been tasked with creating a new server profile Which two pools can be used to assign Layer 2
interface information? (Choose two)
A. Server
B. Mac Address
C. IP address
D. UUD
E. WWN
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit below:

lead4pass 200-155 exam question q12

The figure shows CLI interface forVSAN configuration of Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which command is required to enter the configuration prompt for VSAN as shown in figure?
A. config t
B. vsan name
C. vsan
D. vsan database
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
Which statement about NPIV is true?
A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port
B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
C. NPIV requires a “write erase” and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.
D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which four components are part of the Cisco Data Center Nexus switching offering? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco 6000 Series Switch
B. Cisco ASR 9000
C. Cisco 1000v Switch
D. Cisco IOS Software
E. Cisco 4500E Switch
F. Cisco NX-OS Software
G. Cisco 6509-E Switch
H. Cisco Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: ACFH


QUESTION 16
A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zoneset named zoneset2, but the server is still unable to
access the shared storage. What configuration will resolve this issue?
A. zoneset activate zoneset2
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. zone default-zone permit vsan 2
D. zone copy active-zoneset full-zoneset
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC keepalive link
B. vPC control Iink
C. vPC management link
D. vPC peer link
E. vPC overlay link
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18
Which two chassis discovery policy settings allow far a UCS chassis to be connected to a pair of Fabric Interconnect
using only two physical connections\\’ (Choose two)
A. 4-link
B. 2-link
C. 8-link
D. 1-link
E. Platform-max
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 19
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose
three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG


QUESTION 20
How many VRFs are present in Cisco Nexus OS by default?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 22
A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch.
One design requirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention
from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. LAN Pin Groups
B. Port-Channels
C. System OoS Policy
D. Unified Ports
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
Which option describes Cisco\\’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
A customer deployed Cisco B200 blades with service profiles. The customer experiences an outage on one of the Cisco
B200 blades that will be replaced with a spare blade already in inventory. Which two steps should the customer take to
replace the failed blade? (Choose two.)
A. Disassociate the service profile from the failed blade.
B. Associate the service profile to the spare blade.
C. Create a new service profile for the spare blade.
D. Delete the service profile from the spare blade.
E. Create a new service profile template for the failed blade.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco DCNM
D. Cisco UCS server
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 26
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )
A. VZ Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. VI Port
E. VS Port
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 28
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 30
Which two adapters far Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual
interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. M71-KR
B. P71E
C. VIC-1225
D. P81E
E. VIC-1280
Correct Answer: DE

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Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam Dumps Practice Test – Micvce

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QUESTION 1lead4pass 200-150 exam question q1Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)
A. regular fromat WWNs are being used
B. the command show flogl database was run
C. the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
D. registered name formate WWNs are being used
E. extended format WWNs are being used.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 2
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 3
Which advantage does the bidirectional Cisco QSFP 40-GBPs BiDi transceiver provide?
A. It supports a breakout connection with a 40-gigabit QSFP port on one end that connections to four 10-gigabit SDFP +
ports on the other end.
B. it supports link lengths up to 40 km over single-mode fiber with duplex line card connectors.
C. It supports dedicated fabric-extender transceiver modules that connect to fabric links ( that I, links between a fabric
extender and a parent switch).
D. It enables the reuses of the existing 10-gigabit duplex MMF infrastructure for migration to 40 gigabit Ethernet
connectivity.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 5
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
What happens when there is no entry in the Layer 2 CAM table that corresponds to the destination MAC address of an
incoming frame?
A. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in all VLANs.
B. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, except the port on which it is received.
C. The switch drops the frame.
D. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, including the port on which it is received.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
When you enter the feature npv command on a storage-capable switch from Cisco, what is the result?
A. N-Port Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
B. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port ID Virtualization.
C. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port Virtualization.
D. N-Port ID Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 9lead4pass 200-150 exam question q9Refer to the exhibit. NP uplink ports connected to the core NPIV switch do not come online and are stuck in an
initializing state. Which options is a cause for this behavior?
A. The upstream NP Ports and the downstream server F Ports on the NPV edge switch may not be in the same VSA.
B. The core switch has not been enabled for NPIV.
C. The upstream VSAN ports and the server ports are in full duplex mode.
D. Related VSAN identifier is not allowed on Virtual Port Channels toward the edge switch.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding FIP in FCoE enabled Storage Area Networks?.
A. It discovers and initializes converged network capable devices connected to an Ethernet cloud.
B. it uses a dedicated EtherType of 0xFFFF.
C. it reduces the number of network interface cards required to connect to disparate storage and IP networks.
D. It reduces the number of cables and switches.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D. NL port
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which situation will cause a switch to flood traffic out all of the ports on the switch?
A. The switch receives a destination MAC address of 0000.0000.0000
B. The switch receives a destination MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff
C. The switch receives a source MAC address of 0000.0000.0000
D. The switch\\’s TCAM reaches the MAC address limit.
E. The switch was configured in cut-through mode.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 14
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Which statement describes the uses of zones in a VSAN?
A. Zones are configured at the fabric core.
B. An HBA or storage device can only belong to zone.
C. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic.
D. Zones are a group of sports within a single VSAN.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 16
On which two components of a router can a copy of a running-configuration file be saved manually by an engineer for
backup purposes? (Choose two.)
A. NVRAM
B. Flash
C. ROM
D. RAM
E. DRAM
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 17
Which description of a multiple-initiator target zone is true?
A. It uses more TCAM than a single-initiator single target zone.
B. It increases the number of zones.
C. It uses less TCM space than a single-initiator target zone.
D. It blocks RSCNs between initiators.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18lead4pass 200-150 exam question q18Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Which two naming formats are used to identify an iSCSI node? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. MAC
C. IPv6
D. IQN
E. EHA
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 21
Drag and drop the Ethernet UTP cable category on the left to the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q21Correct Answer: lead4pass 200-150 exam question q21-1

 

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-150 exam question q22What type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802 3 frame
B. TCP packet
C. UDP packet
D. Ethernet frame
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre devices behind a single FC address?
A. Fiber Channel over Ethernet
B. N-Port Virtualization
C. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
D. N-Port Identification Virtualization
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
A network administrator is tasked with creating a switched virtual interface for VLAN 100 on a new Cisco Nexus switch.
Which two commands does the network administrator need? (Choose two.)
A. feature interface-vlan
B. interface vlan 100
C. feature private-vlan
D. interface 100
E. interface mgmt 100
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-150 exam question q25You must attack a strong peripheral to a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch. Which type of port do you use?
A. E
B. F
C. TE
D. NP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 26
A network engineer is changing the boot process of a router from its original state to one that boots from ROMMON.
Which option in Cisco IOS should be changed?
A. config register number
B. RMON
C. bootflash settings
D. terminal history
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 27
What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1
redundancy using Ml-Series line card?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 28
Which two statements about a sipne and-leaf data center design are true? (Choose two.)
A. The design is a three-tier architecture.
B. The design is a two-tier architecture.
C. A spine switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center de
D. All spine switches connect directly to one another.
E. A leaf switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center design.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
Interface mgmt 0ip address 10.9.1.20/24
ip access-list line_110 permit ip 10.1.0.0/16 any20 deny ip any any
ip access-list line_210 permit ip 10.1.1.1/32 any20 permit ip 10.9.1.2/32 any30 permit ip 10.200.200.0/24 any
line vtyaccess-class line_1 in access-class line_2 out
Which host can securely to the switch by using SSH?
A. 10.1.15
B. 10.200.200.1
C. 10.2.1.1
D. 10.9.1.2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two )
A. supply chain agility
B. customer experience transformation
C. customer intimacy
D. increase employee productivity
E. collaborative customer experience
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
The Architecture Development Method (ADM) consists of several phases. Which two phases are correctly mapped to their activities’? (Choose two.)
A. Phase F: Analyze costbenefits, and risk, then develop a detailed implementation and migration plan.
B. Phase E: Set the scope, constraints, and expectations for The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) project
C. Phase D: Develop architectures at three levels.
D. Phase C: Define the business architecture.
E. Phase B: Create the information systems architecture with applications and data.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which two options are typically included in a Cisco Collaboration Architecture services proposal? (Choose two.)
A. medianet-readiness assessment services
B. compliance strategy consulting services
C. collaboration dashboard services
D. Network security readinessassessment
E. end-user documentation services
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which sequence of steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value. Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two)
A. Logistics and Operations
B. Procurement
C. Sales and Marketing
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.) 700-038 dumps
A. analysis of communication process workshops
B. application-readiness assessment
C. internal marketing
D. end-user education and training
E. development of collaboration maps
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
In terms of collaboration, which elements of the typical workday does a properly implemented collaboration architecture affect?
A. processes, culture, and technology
B. making sure that technology fulfills the requirements and expectations
C. processes mapping to the technology and culture
D. behavioral change influencing the right solution
E. customer trust, technology and validated designs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Cisco Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
On which area does architectural assessments focus?
A. key performance indicators
B. operational gaps in the functional areas
C. smart business architecture borderless networks, virtualization, and collaboration
D. advanced technology, route, switch, security, and wireless
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
The three-phased approach of preparation, discovery, and proposal is used to deliver true business and technology alignment. Which option belongs to the discovery phase?
A. services offering and incentives
B. network architecture vision workshop
C. 360 health check
D. architecture roadmap creation and presentation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT executives? (Choose two)
A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
Many tasks in an organization’s processes require collaboration. Which two options will you need from the customer to evaluate the relevance and to properly position Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. employee titles of people who are required to perform designated tasks
B. department titles of people who will perform these tasks
C. available network bandwidth between core processes departments
D. type of information to be shared between involved parties
E. importance and type of interaction between involved parties
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s organizational chart.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two tools and resources can most efficiently help you to shorten the time to prepare the BOM? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration Architecture Validated Designs
B. Cisco Collaboration Competitive Edge Portal
C. Cisco Collaboration Architecture resources on PEC
D. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing tool
E. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
Vertical-oriented support tools are important when positioning Cisco Collaboration Architecture into a specific industry. Where can you find resources that help you address verticals? 700-038 dumps
A. Cisco Learning Store
B. Cisco Partner Central, under Sell & Market Cisco
C. Cisco’s Steps to Success
D. Cisco Partner Education Connection, under Collaboration Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

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Useful Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit. 642-883 dumps
642-883 dumps
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4
only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks? 642-883 dumps
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using the neighbor router BGP command
B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software
C. using route redistribution into BGP
D. using the network router BGP command
E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only
in AS 64500?
A. 192.168.101.11
B. 192.168.101.10
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 10.0.1.1
E. 10.1.10.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default?
A. IPv4 unicast
B. IPv6 unicast
C. VPNv4
D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast
E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4
F. No address-family is enabled by default.
Correct Answer: F

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Hot Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q13-Q30)

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network technician is unable to ping from R1 to R2. What will help correct the problem?
A. Ensure that the serial cable is correctly plugged in to the interfaces.
B. Apply the clock rate 56000 configuration command to the serial0/1 interface of R1.
C. Configure the serial0/1 interfaces on R1 and R2 with the no shutdown command.
D. Change the address of the serial0/1 interface of R1 to 192.1.1.4.
E. Change the subnet masks of both interfaces to 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. ping ipv6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which port-security feature allows a switch to learn MAC addresses dynamically and add them to the running configuration?
A. security violation restrict mode
B. switch port protection
C. sticky learning
D. security violation protect mode
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can configure an interface to convert the dynamic MAC addresses tosticky secure MAC addresses and to add them to the running configuration by enabling sticky learning. To enable sticky learning, enter the switchport port-security macaddress sticky interface configuration command. When you enter this command, the interface converts all the dynamic secure MAC addresses, including those that were dynamically learned before sticky learning was enabled, to sticky secure MAC addresses.

QUESTION 16
Which transport layer protocol is best suited for the transport of VoIP data?
A. RIP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. OSPF
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
How do you bypass password on cisco device?
A. Change the configuration register to 0x2142. With this setting when that router reboots, it bypasses the startup-config and no password is required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What value should be displayed in Box 1 of the ipconfig output of host A?
A. 172.18.14.5
B. 172.18.14.6
C. 192.168.1.10
D. 192.168.1.11
E. 192.168.1.250
F. 192.168.1.254
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
In which two ways does TCP differ from UDP? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
B. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
C. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
D. TCP provides synchronized communication.
E. TCP provides best effort delivery.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Before two computers can communicate over TCP, they must synchronize their initial sequence numbers (ISN)
TCP uses a sequence number to identify each byte of data. The sequence number identifies the order of the bytes sent from each computer so that the data can be reconstructed in order, regardless of any fragmentation, disordering, or packet loss that may occur during

QUESTION 20
What is true about ipv6 unique local addresses:
A. Global id
B. Public routable
C. Summarization
D. Unique prefix
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+ VLAN 0 and 4095 are reserved for system use only. You cannot see or use these VLANs.
+ VLAN 1 and VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs. Default VLANs are created automatically and cannot be configured or deleted by users. + VLAN 2 to 1001 are normal VLANs. You can create, use and delete them. + VLAN 1002 to 1005 are normal VLANs too but Cisco reserved for FDDI an Token Ring.

QUESTION 22
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
A. IEEE 802 1X
B. HSRP
C. port channel
D. router on a stick
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which feature automatically disables Cisco Express Forwarding when it is enabled?
A. multicast
B. IP redirects
C. RIB
D. ACL logging
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
If you enable CiscoExpress Forwarding and then create an access list that uses the logkeyword, the packets that match the access list are not Cisco Express Forwarding switched. They are process switched. Logging disables Cisco Express Forwarding.

QUESTION 24
When troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode, which error condition can be immediately ruled out?
A. giants
B. no buffers
C. collisions
D. ignored
E. dribble condition
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network address is being used?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what’s the most common request/reply pair you’ll see? (Select one answer choice)
A. Echo request and Echo reply
B. ICMP hold and ICMP send
C. ICMP request and ICMP reply
D. Echo off and Echo on
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Questions And Real Answers (1-34)

QUESTION 1
Features of Netflow version 9? (choose two)
A. IEEE standard
B. IETF standard
C. ingress only
D. egress only
E. ingress/egress
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
How route tags can be set?(choose two)
A. ONLY within route tags
B. within taglists
C. can be set with ONLY route-maps
D. can be set DIRECTLY within route maps.
E. only used on link state RPs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which condition can cause unicast reverse path forwarding to fail?
A. split horizon
B. STP convergence
C. PortFast security violation
D. asymmetric routing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? 300-101 dumps (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set
Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about OSPF E1 routes are true? (Choose two)
A. They are preferred over interarea routes
B. They use the OSPF cost from redistribution and the OSPF cost to the ASBR
C. They are preferred over E2 routes
D. They use only the OSPF cost to the ASBR
E. They use only the OSPF cost from redistribution
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
300-101 dumps
A senior network engineer tries to propagate a summary route 209.165.201.0/27 to R2 by redistributing static route on Rl, but setup is not working. What is the issue with the configuration in the exhibit.
A. The summary route is in the global routing table.
B. The wildcard bit in network command is incorrect.
C. The redistribute command is in the wrong address-family.
D. The route target is missing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
300-101 dumps
Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
300-101 dumps
The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. 300-101 dumps Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
300-101 dumps
A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect.
What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent?
Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
300-101 dumps
All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1.
Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Drag and Drop
DMVPN
Select and Place:
300-101 dumps
Correct Answer:
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Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two options are control plan protocols? (Choose two)
A. BGP
B. DARP
C. NAT
D. SMTP
E. CoPP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
What is the purpose of Fibre Channel over Ethernet? 200-155 dumps
A. FCoE maps native Fibre Channel onto Layer 2 Ethernet, Converging IP and storage networks.
B. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel traffic inside GRE tunnels.
C. Data Center Bridging uses FCoE to transport IP traffic over native Fiber Channel.
D. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel inside IP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two components are part of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose two)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. finite state machine
D. data management engine
E. chassis management controller
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2232TM
B. 2148T
C. 22497P
D. 2232PP
E. 2248T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch. One design retirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. Port-Channels
B. Unified Ports
C. LAN Pin Groups
D. System QoS Policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which statement about EPGs is true?
A. EPGs can both provide and consume a contract.
B. EPGs can provide, but cannot consume, a contract
C. EPGs cm consume, but cannot provide, a contract
D. EPGs neither provide or consume contracts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenderssupport 10 Gb/s server connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Which two chassis discovery policy settings allow far a UCS chassis to be connected to a pair of Fabric Interconnect using only two physical connections’ (Choose two)
A. 4-link
B. 2-link
C. 8-link
D. 1-link
E. Platform-max
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit below:
200-155 dumps
The figure shows CLI interface forVSAN configuration of Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which command is required to enter the configuration prompt for VSAN as shown in figure?
A. config t
B. vsan name
C. vsan
D. vsan database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the statements about Cisco WAAS is true?
A. All of these
B. It consists of WAE that optimizes UDP traffic.
C. It consists of WAE that optimizes ICMP traffic.
D. It consists of WAEs that optimize TCP traffic.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Drag the WAAS component feature on the left to the corresponding function on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 20
In an ACf Fabric, which two statements about contexts are true? (Choose two.)
A. A VRF defines a Layer 3 address domain
B. A tenant can contain multiple VRFs
C. In traditional networking, a VRF is equivalent to a VDC
D. A tenant can contain only a single VRF.
E. A VRF defines a Layer 2 address domain.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? 200-155 dumps (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 24
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 25
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. stare-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 26
What are the two default user roles in Cisco UCS Manager RBAC? (Choose two.)
A. Operations
B. AAA Administrator
C. Root
D. Local
E. Sudo
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which statement about NPIV is true?
A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port
B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
C. NPIV requires a “write erase” and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.
D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which device connects Cisco UCS B-Series servers to Cisco Fabric Switches?
A. Fabric Extender
B. a host bus adapter
C. Fabric interconnects
D. a fabric switch
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 32
FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )
A. VZ Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. VI Port
E. VS Port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 33
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A customer has two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects in a cluster connected to one Cisco UCS 5108 Chassis via.
?2 ports from the primary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module A
?2 parts from secondary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module B
The customer wants to ensure maximum redundancy and bandwidth. Within Cisco UCS Manager, how should the chassis discovery policy grouping be configured before the new chassis is discovered?
A. 4-link, none
B. 2-link, none
C. 2-link, port channel
D. 4-link, port channel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
How many VRFs are present in Cisco Nexus OS by default?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

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New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
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R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. 200-125 dumps What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch ?(choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
200-125 dumps
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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 34
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 38
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 40
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Correct Answer: A

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