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Hot Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q13-Q30)

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network technician is unable to ping from R1 to R2. What will help correct the problem?
A. Ensure that the serial cable is correctly plugged in to the interfaces.
B. Apply the clock rate 56000 configuration command to the serial0/1 interface of R1.
C. Configure the serial0/1 interfaces on R1 and R2 with the no shutdown command.
D. Change the address of the serial0/1 interface of R1 to 192.1.1.4.
E. Change the subnet masks of both interfaces to 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. ping ipv6
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which port-security feature allows a switch to learn MAC addresses dynamically and add them to the running configuration?
A. security violation restrict mode
B. switch port protection
C. sticky learning
D. security violation protect mode
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can configure an interface to convert the dynamic MAC addresses tosticky secure MAC addresses and to add them to the running configuration by enabling sticky learning. To enable sticky learning, enter the switchport port-security macaddress sticky interface configuration command. When you enter this command, the interface converts all the dynamic secure MAC addresses, including those that were dynamically learned before sticky learning was enabled, to sticky secure MAC addresses.

QUESTION 16
Which transport layer protocol is best suited for the transport of VoIP data?
A. RIP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. OSPF
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
How do you bypass password on cisco device?
A. Change the configuration register to 0x2142. With this setting when that router reboots, it bypasses the startup-config and no password is required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What value should be displayed in Box 1 of the ipconfig output of host A?
A. 172.18.14.5
B. 172.18.14.6
C. 192.168.1.10
D. 192.168.1.11
E. 192.168.1.250
F. 192.168.1.254
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 19
In which two ways does TCP differ from UDP? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
B. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
C. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
D. TCP provides synchronized communication.
E. TCP provides best effort delivery.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Before two computers can communicate over TCP, they must synchronize their initial sequence numbers (ISN)
TCP uses a sequence number to identify each byte of data. The sequence number identifies the order of the bytes sent from each computer so that the data can be reconstructed in order, regardless of any fragmentation, disordering, or packet loss that may occur during

QUESTION 20
What is true about ipv6 unique local addresses:
A. Global id
B. Public routable
C. Summarization
D. Unique prefix
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+ VLAN 0 and 4095 are reserved for system use only. You cannot see or use these VLANs.
+ VLAN 1 and VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs. Default VLANs are created automatically and cannot be configured or deleted by users. + VLAN 2 to 1001 are normal VLANs. You can create, use and delete them. + VLAN 1002 to 1005 are normal VLANs too but Cisco reserved for FDDI an Token Ring.

QUESTION 22
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
A. IEEE 802 1X
B. HSRP
C. port channel
D. router on a stick
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which feature automatically disables Cisco Express Forwarding when it is enabled?
A. multicast
B. IP redirects
C. RIB
D. ACL logging
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
If you enable CiscoExpress Forwarding and then create an access list that uses the logkeyword, the packets that match the access list are not Cisco Express Forwarding switched. They are process switched. Logging disables Cisco Express Forwarding.

QUESTION 24
When troubleshooting a LAN interface operating in full duplex mode, which error condition can be immediately ruled out?
A. giants
B. no buffers
C. collisions
D. ignored
E. dribble condition
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network address is being used?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what’s the most common request/reply pair you’ll see? (Select one answer choice)
A. Echo request and Echo reply
B. ICMP hold and ICMP send
C. ICMP request and ICMP reply
D. Echo off and Echo on
Correct Answer: A

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Helpful Newest Microsoft MCSA 70-417 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 10 domain controllers and a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC01.
You plan to replace a domain controller named DC1. DC1 has the schema operations master role.
You need to transfer the schema master role to another domain controller named DC10 before you remove Active Directory from DC1.
Which tool should you use?
A. the ntdsutil command
B. the Set-ADDomain cmdlet
C. the Install-ADDSDomain cmdlet
D. the dsadd command
E. the dsamain command
F. the dsmgmt command
G. the net user command
H. the Set-ADForest cmdlet
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To transfer the schema master role using the command line:
Open Command Prompt.
Type:
ntdsutil
At the ntdsutil command prompt, type:
roles
At the fsmo maintenance command prompt, type:
connection
At the server connections command prompt, type:
connect to serverDomainController
At the server connections command prompt, type:
quit
At the fsmo maintenance command prompt, type:
transfer schema master

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a custom Data Collector Set (DCS) named DCS1. You need to configure DCS1 to meet the following requirements:
Automatically run a program when the amount of total free disk space on Server1 drops below 10 percent of capacity.
Log the current values of several registry settings.
Which two should you configure in DCS1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. System configuration information
B. A Performance Counter Alert
C. Event trace data
D. A performance counter
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create an Active Directory snapshot of DC1 each day.
You need to view the contents of an Active Directory snapshot from two days ago.
What should you do first?
A. Start the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS).
B. Run the dsamain.exe command.
C. Run the ntdsutil.exe command.
D. Stop the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) service.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Mounting an Active Directory snapshot
Before connecting to the snapshot we need to mount it. By looking at the results of the List All command in step #8 above, identify the snapshot that you wish to mount, and note the number next to it.
In order to mount an Active Directory snapshot follow these steps:
Log on as a member of the Domain Admins group to one of your Windows Server 2008 Domain Controllers.
Open a Command Prompt window by clicking on the CMD shortcut in the Start menu, or by typing CMD and pressing Enter in the Run or Quick Search parts of the Start menu. Note: You must run NTDSUTIL from an elevated command prompt. To open an elevated command prompt, click Start, right-click Command Prompt, and then click Run as administrator.
In the CMD window, type the following command:
ntdsutil
In the CMD window, type the following command:
snapshot
To view all available snapshots, in the CMD window, type the following command:
list all The result should look like this:
snapshot: List All
1: 2008/10/25:03:14 {ec53ad62-8312-426f-8ad4-d47768351c9a}
2: C: {15c6f880-cc5c-483b-86cf-8dc2d3449348}
In this example we only have one snapshot available, one from 2008/10/25 at 03:14AM (yes, I write articles at this time…). We’ll mount this one.
In the CMD window, type the following command:
mount 2
The result should look like this:
snapshot: mount 2
Snapshot {15c6f880-cc5c-483b-86cf-8dc2d3449348} mounted as
C:’$SNAP_200810250314_VOLUMEC$’
Next, you can leave the NTDSUTIL running, or you can quit by typing quit 2 times. Note: Like the above command, the mounting process can also be run in one line.
However, note that NTDSUTIL requires that the “list all” command be run in the same session that you mount the snapshot. So in order to mount the snapshot with a one-liner, you will need to run “list all” first.
ntdsutil snapshot “list all” “mount 2” quit quit
Note: You do not need to quit from the NTDSUTIL command, you can keep it open assuming that you’ll probably want to unmount the snapshot right after working with it.

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. 70-417 dumps
DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-417 dumps
You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and a filter.
B. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
C. Configure the Server Options.
D. Configure the Scope Options.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1. GPO1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-417 dumps
You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. Security Filtering
C. Block Inheritance
D. WMI Filtering
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Security filtering is a way of refining which users and computers will receive and apply the settings in a Group Policy object (GPO). Using security filtering, you can specify that only certain security principals within a container where the GPO is linked apply the GPO. Security group filtering determines whether the GPO as a whole applies to groups, users, or computers; it cannot be used selectively on different settings within a GPO.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named HVServer1. HVServer1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
HVServer1 hosts two virtual machines named Server1 and Server2. Both virtual machines connect to a virtual switch named Switch1.
On Server2, you install a network monitoring application named App1.
You need to capture all of the inbound and outbound traffic to Server1 by using App1.
Which two commands should you run from Windows PowerShell? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Get-VM “Server2” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 1
B. Get-VM “Server1” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -Allow/Teaming On
C. Get-VM “Server1” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Source
D. Get-VM “Server2” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -PortMirroring Destination
E. Get-VM “Server1” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -IovWeight 0
F. Get-VM “Server2” | Set-VMNetworkAdapter-AllowTeaming On
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation: Note:
* Get-VM will get the virtual machines from one or more Hyper-V hosts.
-ComputerName<String[]> is used to specify one or more Hyper-V hosts from which virtual machines are to be retrieved. NetBIOS names, IP addresses, and fully-qualified domain names are allowable. The default is the local computer — use “localhost” or a dot (“.”) to specify the local computer explicitly.
* Set-VMNetworkAdapter is used to configure features of the virtual network adapter in a virtual machine or the management operating system.
-PortMirroring is used to specify the port mirroring mode for the network adapter to be configured.
With Port Mirroring, traffic sent to or from a Hyper-V Virtual Switch port is copied and sent to a mirror port. There are a range of applications for port mirroring – an entire ecosystem of network visibility companies exist that have products designed to consume port mirror data for performance management, security analysis, and network diagnostics. With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch ports that are monitored as well as the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic.

QUESTION 7
You have a VHD that contains an image of Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to Apply updates to the image.
You need to ensure that only updates that can install without requiring a restart are installed.
Which DISM option should you use?
A. /Apply-Unattend
B. /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
C. /PreventPending
D. /Cleanup-Image
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To specify a binary path for the NEWSERVICE service, type:
sc config NewService binpath= “ntsd -d c:\windows\system32\NewServ.exe”

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You need to log the amount of system resources used by each virtual machine.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Enable-VMResourceMeteringcmdlet.
B. From Windows System Resource Manager, enable Accounting.
C. From Windows System Resource Manager, add a resource allocation policy.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Measure-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The Enable-VMResourceMeteringcmdlet collects resource utilization data for a virtual machine or resource pool.

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You mount an Active Directory snapshot on DC1.
You need to expose the snapshot as an LDAP server.
Which tool should you use?
A. Dsamain
B. Ntdsutil
C. Ldp
D. ADSI Edit
Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Dsamain.exe can you can use to expose the snapshot data as an LDAP server

QUESTION 11
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
70-417 dumps
You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Correct Answer: I

Explanation:
Backup
Operations in Hyper-V
No
VSS Writer Available?
In some cases, you need an Application-consistent backup but there is no VSS writer available. One example of this is MySQL. Hyper-V backups of virtual machines containing MySQL will always result in either a crashconsistent or an image-level backup. For MySQL, the latter is probably acceptable as MySQL doesn’t perpetually expand the log file. However, if you’re using MySQL within a VSS-aware VM, then a Hyper-Vbased backup tool is going to take a crashconsistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn’t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; tool is going to take a crash- consistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn’t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; even when recovery is possible, it may be painful. MySQL is just one example; any number of line-of-business Applications could tell a similar tale. In the case of MySQL, one solution is to find a guest-level backup Application that is MySQL- aware and can back it up properly. For Applications for which no backup Application has a plug-in, you may need to have pre- and post-backup scripts that stop services or close Applications. If brief downtime is acceptable, you can disable the Backup item in Hyper-V Integration Services, thereby forcing Hyper-V to save the state of the VM during backup. This technique results in an image-level backup and can be used on any Application that doesn’t have a VSS writer.

QUESTION 12
Which terminology is being described below:
This trust is a manually created trust that shortens the trust path to improve the speed at which authentications, which occur between domain trees, are processed
A. Shortcut Trust
B. Quick Trust
C. Easy Trust
D. Simple Trust
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You plan to deploy a file server to a temporary location.
The temporary location experiences intermittent power failures.
The file server will contain a dedicated volume for shared folders. 70-417 dumps
You need to create a volume for the shared folders. The solution must minimize the likelihood of file corruption if a power failure occurs.
Which file system should you use?
A. NFS
B. FAT32
C. ReFS
D. NTFS
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The ReFS file system allows for resiliency against corruptions with the option to salvage amongst many other key features like Metadata integrity with checksums, Integrity streams with optional user data integrity, and shared storage pools across machines for additional failure tolerance and load balancing, etc.

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1.
You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install PswaWebApplication
B. Add PswaAuthorizationRule
C. Set-WSManlnstance
D. Set-WSManQuickConfig
E. Set-BCAuthentication
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
Configure PowerShell Web Access Gateway using the following PowerShell Cmdlet.
Install-PswaWebApplication seTestCertificate
Running the cmdlet installs the Windows PowerShell Web Access web application within the IIS Default Web Site container. The cmdlet creates the infrastructure required to run Windows PowerShell Web Access on the default website,
https:///pswa.
Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
Adds a new authorization rule to the Windows PowerShell Web Access authorization rule set.
Parameters:
ComputerGroupName
ComputerName
ConfigurationName
RuleName
UserGroupName
UserName
Credential (Windows Server 2012 R2 and later)

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains 200 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1.
You make a change to GPO1.
You need to force all of the computers in OU1 to refresh their Group Policy settings immediately. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Set-AdComputercmdlet
B. Group Policy Object Editor
C. Active Directory Users and Computers
D. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
In the previous versions of Windows, this was accomplished by having the user run GPUpdate.exe on their computer. Starting with Windows Server? 2012 and Windows?8, you can now remotely refresh Group Policy settings for all computers in an OU from one central location through the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). Or you can use the Invoke-GPUpdate cmdlet to refresh Group Policy for a set of computers, not limited to the OU structure, for example, if the computers are located in the default computers container. Note: Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a scriptable Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in, providing a single administrative tool for managing Group Policy across the enterprise. GPMC is the standard tool for managing Group Policy.
Incorrect:
Not B: Secedit configures and analyzes system security by comparing your current configuration to at least one template.

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Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Questions And Real Answers (1-34)

QUESTION 1
Features of Netflow version 9? (choose two)
A. IEEE standard
B. IETF standard
C. ingress only
D. egress only
E. ingress/egress
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
How route tags can be set?(choose two)
A. ONLY within route tags
B. within taglists
C. can be set with ONLY route-maps
D. can be set DIRECTLY within route maps.
E. only used on link state RPs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which condition can cause unicast reverse path forwarding to fail?
A. split horizon
B. STP convergence
C. PortFast security violation
D. asymmetric routing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? 300-101 dumps (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set
Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about OSPF E1 routes are true? (Choose two)
A. They are preferred over interarea routes
B. They use the OSPF cost from redistribution and the OSPF cost to the ASBR
C. They are preferred over E2 routes
D. They use only the OSPF cost to the ASBR
E. They use only the OSPF cost from redistribution
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
300-101 dumps
A senior network engineer tries to propagate a summary route 209.165.201.0/27 to R2 by redistributing static route on Rl, but setup is not working. What is the issue with the configuration in the exhibit.
A. The summary route is in the global routing table.
B. The wildcard bit in network command is incorrect.
C. The redistribute command is in the wrong address-family.
D. The route target is missing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
300-101 dumps
Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
300-101 dumps
The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. 300-101 dumps Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
300-101 dumps
A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect.
What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent?
Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
300-101 dumps
All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1.
Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Drag and Drop
DMVPN
Select and Place:
300-101 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-101 dumps

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62-193 dumps

Useful Microsoft Certified Educator 62-193 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You have to recommend a solution to help the students solve their problem regarding the historical sources.
The problem must be solved as quickly as possible.
What should you recommend?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Modify the language settings on the students’ desktop or laptop computers.
B. Email the source text to a language teacher at the school.
C. Use an Internet-based translation tool.
D. Use a social networking site to connect with students in other countries and upload the text to the social networking site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You teach a class of 20 students. Your classroom contains six computers.
You run an activity that is carried out mostly on paper.
Before the end of the activity, the students will require access to the computers.
Which lesson structure should provide the best learning experience for the students?
A. Create several different activities that require the computers at different stages during the lesson.
B. Execute the computer-based portion of the activity as a class demonstration.
C. Modify the tasks of the lesson so that only some of the students require access to the computers.
D. Have all of the students perform the same activity and instruct the students to take turns using the computers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the primary benefit of increasing the use of ICT resources during the history lessons?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. The students will have access to a greater range of learning resources.
B. The students will more easily and quickly submit their assignments.
C. The students will stay on task throughout the lessons.
D. The students will deliver assignments that are clearer and more presentable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You plan to use ICT to prepare an effective persuasive writing lesson.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Use the Internet to find a complete, ready-made lesson to use with the students.
B. Use the Internet to find teaching resources to discuss with the students.
C. Use spell check software to improve your lesson plan.
D. Scan sections of the class textbook to use as reference.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You plan to lead a class discussion about the persuasive writing examples that the students bring in and to display the examples to the entire class.
Which two ICT resources should you use to achieve this task? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a flatbed scanner
B. a data projector
C. a monochrome laser printer
D. a digital camera
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
You want to identify the primary benefit of using ICT during the persuasive writing lesson.
Which benefit should you identify?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. In today’s world, writing is mostly done on a computer.
B. ICT helps students develop word processing skills.
C. The computer lab is used regularly.
D. Word processing applications allow students to easily edit and modify text.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You want the students to collect information from organizations that they find on the Internet.
Which instructions or advice should you provide to the students? 62-193 dumps
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the information sent to the student’s home e-mail address.
B. Only request information from organizations that have a secure Web site.
C. Have the information sent to the school’s e-mail address.
D. Only request information from organizations that have a Web site that requires registration.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
One of your students has poor hearing.
You want to ensure that the student has the opportunity to interact with the farmer during the video-conference.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. After the video-conference, have the other students explain the key points of the conference to the student.
B. Before the video-conference, have the student submit questions in writing.
C. Manipulate the seating arrangement.
D. Record the audio portion of the video-conference for further listening.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You want to address the ICT Competency Framework for Teachers (ICT-CFT) policy goals by using the school’s limited ICT resources.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Ask the students to use their computers at home.
B. Have the students work in collaborative groups.
C. Ask the students to use their mobile devices.
D. Have the more confident students use the computers while the other students observe them.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your class just completed the video-conference with the farmer.
You want to do a quick assessment to identify how many students understood the key points of the video-conference.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Have the students use the student response system.
B. Have the students work in pairs to create a blog.
C. Have each student write an essay by using a word processing application.
D. Have each student design a presentation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You teach an economics lesson about the effects of using price discount strategies.
During the class, you provide detailed sales statistics from a major national retailer.
Some of the students question the effectiveness of price discount strategies.
You want to demonstrate to the students that the strategies are cost-effective.
What should you do?
A. Search the Internet for Web sites that contain more information about retail pricing strategies.
B. Enter sample sales figures into a spreadsheet to model the effects of using price discountstrategies.
C. Search the Internet for teaching resources on retail pricing strategies.
D. Email several retail management experts and ask them for examples of how they use price discountstrategies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You want to improve the students’ research skills by using ICT resources. The solution must help meet the school’s organizational goals.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Tell the students to search for information on the Internet.
B. Give the students a list of Internet links to sites about acid rain.
C. Give the students printed Web pages about acid rain.
D. Work with the students to create a list of search terms.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You have used Information and Communication Technology (ICT) successfully in the classroom for several years.
A new teacher at the school says that she has had little opportunity to use ICT in the classroom. She wants to make use of the computer lab in her teaching.
What advice would you give her?
A. Ensure that the planned activities are easy for the students.
B. Ensure that the planned activities are fun for the students.
C. Ensure that the planned activities are suitable for the learning objectives.
D. Ensure that the students understand how ICT will be used to complete their activities.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You want your students to analyze the costs of running a business.
You plan a visit with your students to a business center that sells business services.
The business center offers the following services.
– Printing
– Photocopying
– Web site design
– Document scanning
– Word processing and editing.
What should you include as part of your classroom activities?
A. Give an assignment during which the students will read three case studies about office service businesses. Summarize the students’ findings in a word processing document.
B. Run a research project during which the students will use the Internet to compile a list of prices of various business services.
C. Run a three-day project during which the students will set up their own office service business at the school and sell business services to the students and the staff.
D. Run a two-hour project during which you will provide reference information on the cost of equipment, materials, and salaries. Guide the students to use spreadsheets to calculate the costs of a business.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Certain teachers at the school question the value of using video conferencing for the project.
What is the most important benefit of video conferencing as it is being used in this project?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Video conferencing provides an opportunity to use a new technology.
B. Video conferencing provides an opportunity for group collaboration.
C. Video conferencing provides an authentic conversation about the problem.
D. Video conferencing provides a reliable way to gather scientific information.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
At the beginning of the second mathematics lesson, you want to engage students and remind them of the learning objectives.
What should you use?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. a presentation that models the learning outcome
B. an audio recording that defines symmetry
C. a graphics application that displays symmetrical objects
D. a printed handout that contains an outline of the learning objectives
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You teachpolitical science to a class of 20 students. The students are 17 years old. Your school has a computer lab that has access to the Internet.
Your government has an election.
You create a lesson that requires the students to spend the entire day of the election analyzing the election results as they are announced.
You reserve the computer lab for the activity. 62-193 dumps
You want to ensure that the students can continuously record the election results. The solution must also ensure that the students seethechanges to the political map as the resultscome in.
What should you do?
A. Have the students input the election results to a spreadsheet application and create charts to present the results.
B. Have the students use a word processing application to create a table that presents the election results.
C. Have the students use a spreadsheet application to build a model presenting the election results.
D. Have the students use a spreadsheet application to import charts from the political parties’Web sites, and then export the charts to a presentation.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
The students recently started using the film editing software.
You want to ensure that the students benefit as much as possible from the filmmaker’s visit.
What should you do?
This item is part of a case study. To view the case study information, click on the Case Study button below.
A. Schedule the filmmaker to present a one-hour lecture to the entire class.
B. Schedule each student to individually ask the filmmaker questions.
C. Have each student email you a list of questions before the visit.
D. Have the students use a wiki to collaborate on a list of questions for the filmmaker.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are a teacher at a secondary school. You have 30 students in your class. Your classroom contains 10 laptop computers.
You plan a project for the students. You will provide the students with information in three different formats:
audio recordings, photographs, and printed documents. The students must combine the information to produce graphs and charts in a detailed report.
What is the best way to organize the project?
A. Divide the project into a series of separate tasks.
Allocate each task to a different student.
Ask all of the students to create their own detailed report.
B. Create a rotation schedule for the classroom computers.
Ask every student touse their turn on the computer to produce their own detailed report.
C. Provide all of the information to all of the students.
Ask every student to explain how they will achieve the goals of the project.
D. Divide the classinto 10 groups.
Ask the groups to work collaborativelyto assemble the detailed report.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You are an environmental education teacher.
Your students are doing a collaborative project with students from another country using Information and Communication Technology (ICT).
You create an activity that requires your students to use presentation software to display pictures and videos of local birds. The students will then email the presentation to the foreign students.
You discover that the file size of the presentation exceeds the size limit set by your email provider.
You want to ensure that the students can send the presentation by email.
What should you advise the students to do?
A. In the presentation, reduce the font sizes and deactivate the custom animations.
B. Remove the pictures and the videos from the presentation.
C. Convert the presentation file to a bitmap image.
D. Compress the video files and the pictures before inserting them into the presentation.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-35)

QUESTION 1
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two options are control plan protocols? (Choose two)
A. BGP
B. DARP
C. NAT
D. SMTP
E. CoPP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 7
What is the purpose of Fibre Channel over Ethernet? 200-155 dumps
A. FCoE maps native Fibre Channel onto Layer 2 Ethernet, Converging IP and storage networks.
B. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel traffic inside GRE tunnels.
C. Data Center Bridging uses FCoE to transport IP traffic over native Fiber Channel.
D. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel inside IP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two components are part of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose two)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. finite state machine
D. data management engine
E. chassis management controller
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?
A. automate cloud
B. layered cloud
C. private cloud
D. collapsed cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2232TM
B. 2148T
C. 22497P
D. 2232PP
E. 2248T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A network engineer is configuring a pair of 6248 Fabric Interconnects, each with dual 10G uplinks to a parent switch. One design retirement is to ensure a specific server is able to use 10G of throughput to the LAN without contention from other servers within the 5108 chassis. Which technology will accomplish this?
A. Port-Channels
B. Unified Ports
C. LAN Pin Groups
D. System QoS Policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which statement about EPGs is true?
A. EPGs can both provide and consume a contract.
B. EPGs can provide, but cannot consume, a contract
C. EPGs cm consume, but cannot provide, a contract
D. EPGs neither provide or consume contracts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenderssupport 10 Gb/s server connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Which two chassis discovery policy settings allow far a UCS chassis to be connected to a pair of Fabric Interconnect using only two physical connections’ (Choose two)
A. 4-link
B. 2-link
C. 8-link
D. 1-link
E. Platform-max
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit below:
200-155 dumps
The figure shows CLI interface forVSAN configuration of Cisco MDS 9000 switch.
Which command is required to enter the configuration prompt for VSAN as shown in figure?
A. config t
B. vsan name
C. vsan
D. vsan database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the statements about Cisco WAAS is true?
A. All of these
B. It consists of WAE that optimizes UDP traffic.
C. It consists of WAE that optimizes ICMP traffic.
D. It consists of WAEs that optimize TCP traffic.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Drag the WAAS component feature on the left to the corresponding function on the right.
Select and Place:
200-155 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-155 dumps
QUESTION 20
In an ACf Fabric, which two statements about contexts are true? (Choose two.)
A. A VRF defines a Layer 3 address domain
B. A tenant can contain multiple VRFs
C. In traditional networking, a VRF is equivalent to a VDC
D. A tenant can contain only a single VRF.
E. A VRF defines a Layer 2 address domain.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Which statement about a bridge domain is true?
A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network
B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain
C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it
D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? 200-155 dumps (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 24
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 25
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. stare-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 26
What are the two default user roles in Cisco UCS Manager RBAC? (Choose two.)
A. Operations
B. AAA Administrator
C. Root
D. Local
E. Sudo
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which statement about NPIV is true?
A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port
B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
C. NPIV requires a “write erase” and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.
D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which device connects Cisco UCS B-Series servers to Cisco Fabric Switches?
A. Fabric Extender
B. a host bus adapter
C. Fabric interconnects
D. a fabric switch
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 32
FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )
A. VZ Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. VI Port
E. VS Port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 33
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A customer has two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects in a cluster connected to one Cisco UCS 5108 Chassis via.
?2 ports from the primary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module A
?2 parts from secondary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module B
The customer wants to ensure maximum redundancy and bandwidth. Within Cisco UCS Manager, how should the chassis discovery policy grouping be configured before the new chassis is discovered?
A. 4-link, none
B. 2-link, none
C. 2-link, port channel
D. 4-link, port channel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
How many VRFs are present in Cisco Nexus OS by default?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

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High quality CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to performance?
A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. CLO-001 dumps
Which of the following job responsibilities of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parameters
C. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that are Internet accessible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted on cloud provided infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an essential step in the start-up process of a virtual server?
A. Identify the location of the physical machine
B. Select identity providers
C. Select security credentials
D. Select the application set that will run on it
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
An entrepreneur has decided to open an e-commerce site to complement their retail store. After researching their options, they decide that a PaaS solution will be sufficient. CLO-001 dumps To reduce upfront cost, the entrepreneur intends to build the site themselves. Which of the following skill-sets will be needed?
A. Firewall Administration
B. Web-Server Administration
C. Security standard development
D. Application development
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
An organization is replacing its core insurance platform. The solution is made up of internally hosted insurance systems and applications hosted in the cloud.
Which of the following activities is part of service transition?
A. Ensure that as part of the change management process the events are sequenced to include the cloud provider and that they have resources available.
B. Ensure that monitoring controls are implemented by the cloud provider to ensures that the system is highly available and that performance can be measured.
C. Ensure that the SLA’s for availability have been well documented and agreed to as part of the contract arrangement between the two companies.
D. Ensure that the capacity and storage is available to meet the current and future demands of the solution of the cloud provider’s infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The business benefits of mobile computing are enhanced MOST by which of the following cloud service characteristics?
A. Hardware independence
B. Security
C. Distribution over the Internet
D. Time to market
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the cloud characteristics that speeds up development, deployment, and overall time to market?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Cloud bursting
C. Universal access
D. Network pooling
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which of the following must be implemented by a cloud provider to ensure that different entities can authenticate and share basic user accounting information?
A. Scalability
B. Federation
C. Virtualization
D. Self service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a differentiating characteristic of private cloud solutions compared to public cloud solutions?
A. Private cloud solutions are dedicated for use by a single organization.
B. Private cloud solutions are never accessible via the public Internet.
C. Private cloud solutions do not provide incremental scalability.
D. Private cloud solutions save considerably more money than a public cloud solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following describes the commonality between cloud computing and outsourcing?
A. Shift from CAPEX to OPEX
B. Reduced compliance cost
C. Simplified security management
D. Reduced system architecture complexity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
How can an organization successfully implement an IaaS strategy?
A. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines
B. Continuously execute performance analytics
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access
D. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
An organization has just gone to a start-up cloud provider for its entire infrastructure. Which of the following is one of the new organizational roles required at the cloud provider?
A. Supply manager
B. Commercial manager
C. Infrastructure project manager
D. Credit risk manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a service level management tool aimed at quantifying a cloud offerings’ performance?
A. Mean Time to Recovery
B. Risk Assessment
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. Request for Proposal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A company has hired a third party vendor to provide email and spam/anti-malware filtering services. CLO-001 dumps The type of cloud service provided by the vendor is BEST described as which of the following?
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk to business continuity when using an external cloud service provider?
A. Unauthorizedaccess to customer data
B. Vendor being purchased
C. Virtual server failure
D. Vendor going out of business
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Cloud computing has the greatest benefit for which of the following user populations?
A. User populations which steadily increase in size.
B. User populations that vary and are unpredictable.
C. User populations that are of fixed size.
D. User populations that vary in size on a seasonal basis.
Correct Answer: B

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New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. 200-125 dumps What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch ?(choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 34
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 38
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 40
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] How to Pass Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Update

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300-115 dumps

Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
A. Both virtualswitch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection. Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. port-priority
B. cost
C. forward-timers
D. link type
E. root guard
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routersR1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP
priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRPgroup 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three statements are true of adefault HSRP configuration? 300-115 dumps (Choose three.)
A. The Standby hello time is 2 seconds.
B. Two HSRP groups are configured.
C. The Standby track interface priority decrement is 10.
D. The Standby hold time is 10 seconds
E. The Standby priority is 100.
F. The Standby delay is 3 seconds.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two.)
A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which option is the minimum frame size for an 802.1Q frame?
A. 64 bytes
B. 68 bytes
C. 1518 bytes
D. 1522 bytes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
After UDLD is implemented, a NetworkAdministrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?
A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remainup, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?
A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDMtemplates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hostsin one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users tomanage the flow of traffic handled by the
route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth? 300-115 dumps
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limitingthe spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
After anEtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state.
Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in theaddress table, and added to the running configuration?
A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)
300-115 dumps
A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. 300-115 dumps While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which four LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an Ether Channel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution andcore switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primarydevice for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting hasidentified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an Ether Channel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. 300-115 dumps Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100
on this router?
300-115 dumps
A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

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LX0-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the difference between the –remove and the –purge action with the dpkg command?
A. –remove removes the program, –purge also removes the config files.
B. –remove only removes the program, –purge only removes the config files.
C. –remove removes a package, –purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. –remove removes only the package file itself, –purge removes all files related to the package.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to searching a particular number of subdirectories? LX0-101 dumps
A. –max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands will allow an administrator to adjust the number of mounts after which an existing filesystem will be checked by e2fsck?
A. debugfs
B. dumpe2fs
C. mode2fs
D. tune2fs
E. mke2fs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 9
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. LX0-101 dumps (Please provide the fill name with full path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 11
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Demo Update

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010-151 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?
A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, 010-151 dumps hosts, and clients?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
010-151 dumps
Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. 010-151 dumps
010-151 dumps
What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? 010-151 dumps (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?
A. 100 Mb/s
B. 1 Gb/s
C. 10 Gb/s
D. 100 Gb/s
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.
B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.
C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.
D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.
E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.
Correct Answer: AE

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