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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Exam Code: 70-488
Total Questions: 131 Q&As
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 2
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Customers report that upon creation of the Payment Confirmation document, they do not receive a confirmation message.
You need to ensure that customers receive confirmation messages.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user has the correct permissions to start a workflow.
B. Ensure that the Payment Confirmation content type is deployed.
C. Ensure that the user is assigned to the Wholesale role.
D. Ensure that a workflow is associated with the document content type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to configure navigation for the site.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create simple links or headers for new pages.
B. Create friendly URLs for new pages automatically.
C. Add unique identifiers to new pages.
D. Create term-driven pages with friendly URLs.
E. Add new pages to navigation automatically.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm.
Which code segments should you implement? 70-488 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-488 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 8
A\Batch 1
You need to automate the backup of a site collection.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Back up to a network folder.
B. Set the LockStatus of the site collection to Adding content prevented
C. Back up to a local folder and then move the backup to a network folder.
D. Use Central Administration to perform the backup.
E. Use Windows PowerShell to perform the backup.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You need to configure the credential store for the app.
Which properties should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Pin
B. Windows Password
C. Windows User Name
D. Password
E. User Name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
You need to create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to authenticate against SharePoint and Margie’s Travel API. 70-488 dumps
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account.
What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
070-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server 2012. You create a group Manged Service Account named gservice1. You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account. How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From Windows PowerShell,run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter
C. From Windows PowerShell,run Set-Service and specify the -StartupType parameter
D. From Services Console configure the General settings
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 and a domain controller named DC2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. On DC2, you open Server Manager and you add Server1 as another server to manage. From Server Manager on DC2, you right-click Server1 as shown in the exhibit. You need to ensure that when you right-click Server1, you see the option to run the DHCP console.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, install the Feature Administration Tools.
B. In the domain, add DC1 to the DHCP Administrators group.
C. On DC2 and Server1, run winrm quickconfig.
D. On DC2, install the Role Administration Tools.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains user accounts and computer accounts.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the domain. GP1 contains Computer Configuration settings and User Configuration settings.
You need to prevent the User Configuration settings in GP1 from being applied to users. The solution must ensure that the Computer Configuration settings in GP1 are applied to all client computers. What should you configure?
A. the Group Policy loopback processing mode
B. the Block Inheritance feature
C. the Enforced setting
D. the GPO Status
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a domain controller named DC1 that has the DNS Server server role installed. DC1 has a standard primary DNS zone for contoso.com. 070-410 dumps
You need to ensure that only client computers in the contoso.com domain will be able to add their records to the contoso.com zone.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the Security settings of Dc1
B. Modify the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Store the contoso.com zone in Active Directory
D. Sign the contoso.com zone.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your network contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2. Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1. Host2 contains a virtual machine named VM2.
VM1 and VM2 run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the Network Load Balancing feature on VM1 and VM2. You need to ensure that the virtual machines are configured to support Network Load Balancing (NLB). Which virtual machine settings should you configure on VM1 and VM2?
A. Router guard
B. DHCP guard
C. Port mirroring
D. MAC address
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed.
On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1. When you try to add a RemoteFX 3D Video Adapter to VM1, you discover that the option is unavailable as shown in the following exhibit.
070-410 dumps
You need to add the RemoteFX 3D Video Adapter to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. On Server1, run the Enable-VMRemoteFxPhysicalVideoAdapter cmdlet.
B. On Server1, install the Media Foundation feature.
C. On Server1, run the Add-VMRemoteFx3dVideoAdapter cmdlet.
D. On Server1, install the Remote Desktop Virtualization Host (RD Virtualization Host) role service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. 070-410 dumps The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing a Windows PowerShell cmdlet that activates previously de-activated firewall rules.
Which of the following is the cmdlet being discussed?
A. Set-NetFirewallRule
B. Enable-NetFirewallRule
C. Set-NetIPsecRule
D. Enable-NetIPsecRule
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com. You need to ensure that client computers can resolve singlelabel names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
D. Create a GlobalNames zone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an active directory forest. The forest functional level is Windows server 2012. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that run windows server 2012. You purchase a network scanner named Scanner1 that supports Web Services on Devices (WDS).
You need to share the network scanner on Server1 Which server role should you install on Server1?
A. Web Server (IIS)
B. Fax Server
C. File and Storage Services
D. Print and Document Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On Server1, you create a printer named Printer1. You share Printer1 and publish Printer1 in Active Directory. You need to provide a group named Group1 with the ability to manage Printer1.
What should you do?
A. From Print Management, configure the Sharing settings of Printer1.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the Security settings of Server1- Printer1.
C. From Print Management, configure the Security settings of Printer1.
D. From Print Management, configure the Advanced settings of Printer1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that a user named User1 can use Windows Server Backup to create a complete backup of Server1. 070-410 dumps What should you configure?
A. The local groups by using Computer Management
B. A task by using Authorization Manager
C. The User Rights Assignment by using the Local Group Policy Editor
D. The Role Assignment by using Authorization Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DNS Server server role installed and has a primary zone for contoso.com. The Active Directory domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup. You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone.
What should you do first?
A. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone
C. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC
D. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled? 200-125 dumps
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. 200-125 dumps How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Exam Code: 70-412
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed.
You attempt to deploy AD RMS.
During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found.
You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Authorization Manager
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
E: Active Directory Rights Management Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. 70-412 dumps The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role in- stalled. All servers run Windows Server 2012.d
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the so- lution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1.
A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1.
When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receive the following error message.
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error message does not appear.
What should you do?
A. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools.
B. Run the regsvr32.exe command.
C. Modify the PATH system variable.
D. Configure the Active Directory Certificate Services server role from Server Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains named east.contoso.com and west.contoso.com. 70-412 dumps
You install an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster in each child domain.
You discover that all of the users in the contoso.com forest are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the users in west.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com and that the users in east.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the west.contoso.com do- main.
C. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the east.contoso.com do- main.
D. Modify the properties of the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Cer- tificate Services server role installed and is configured as an enterprise certification authority (CA).
You need to ensure that all of the users in the domain are issued a certificate that can be used for the following purposes:
Email security
Client authentication
Encrypting File System (EFS)
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Auto-Enrollment settings.
B. From a Group Policy, configure the Certificate Services Client Certificate Enrollment Pol- icy settings.
C. Modify the properties of the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
D. Duplicate the User certificate template, and then publish the template.
E. From a Group Policy, configure the Automatic Certificate Request Settings settings.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server3 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
DHCP is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that only Scope1, Scope3, and Scope5 assign the same DNS servers to DHCP clients. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a superscope and scope-level policies.
B. Configure the Scope Options.
C. Create a superscope and a filter.
D. Configure the Server Options.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
An administrator installs the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on a server named Server2.
The administrator configures IPAM by using Group Policy based provisioning and starts server discovery.
You plan to create Group Policies for IPAM provisioning.
You need to identify which Group Policy object (GPO) name prefix must be used for IPAM Group Policies.
What should you do on Server2?
A. From Server Manager, review the IPAM overview.
B. Run the ipamgc.exe tool.
C. From Task Scheduler, review the IPAM tasks.
D. Run the Get-IpamConfiguration cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains two DNS servers named DN51 and DNS2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
DNS1 has a primary zone named contoso.com. 70-412 dumps DNS2 has a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
You need to log the zone transfer packets sent between DNS1 and DNS2.
What should you configure?
A. Monitoring from DNS Manager
B. Logging from Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
C. A Data Collector Set (DCS) from Performance Monitor
D. Debug logging from DNS Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Users frequently access the website of an external partner company. The URL of the website is http://partners.adatum.com.
The partner company informs you that it will perform maintenance on its Web server and that the IP addresses of the Web server will change.
After the change is complete, the users on your internal network report that they fail to access the website.
However, some users who work from home report that they can access the website.
You need to ensure that your DNS servers can resolve partners.adatum.com to the correct IP ad- dress immediately.
What should you do?
A. Run dnscmd and specify the CacheLockingPercent parameter.
B. Run Set-DnsServerGlobalQueryBlockList.
C. Run ipconfig and specify the Renew parameter.
D. Run Set-DnsServerCache.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel? 300-135 dumps
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
300-135 dumps
QUESTION 4
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. 300-135 pdf Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead? 300-135 dumps
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. 300-135 dumps Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
You are the Office 365 administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
Some email messages sent from the trusted domain fabrikam.com are being rejected as spam. Some of these email messages originate inside the fabnkam.com network, and some of them originate from an application in the fabrikam.com co-located data center.
The fabrikam.com systems administrators have asked you to add their domain and the IP addresses of the data center that hosts their external application to your list of safe senders.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a content filter to allow the fabrikam.com domain.
B. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the data center IP address range.
C. Create a connection filter to allow the data center IP address range.D. Add the fabrikam.com domain as an accepted domain.
E. Create an inbound connector for the fabrikam.com domain.
F. Configure a mail flow rule to bypass spam filtering for the fabrikam.com domain.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator.
The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. 70-398 pdf
You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your company decides to migrate all users to Office 365.
As part of the migration, Office 365 ProPlus will be installed on all client computers and the company will use Office Telemetry. You need to produce a report that contains the information collected by Office Telemetry. 70-398 dumps
Which three types of information can you include in the report? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Information about files that are not in the Most Recently Used list
B. The names of add-ins and solutions that interact with Office
C. The file names of Office files that are in the Most Recently Used list
D. System information such as user name and computer name
E. The contents of all files that are in the Most Recently Used list
Correct Answer: BCD
70-398
QUESTION 4
You need to identify which business requirement will be met by implementing the planned hardware load balancer.
Which business requirement should you identify?
A. Minimize the hardware costs required for a load balancing solution.
B. Minimize the software costs required for a load balancing solution.
C. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Client Access server.
D. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Mailbox server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend which task is required to prepare Active Directory for the planned Exchange Server 2013 implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparead.
B. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparead.
C. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparealldomains.
D. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparedomain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend which type of group must be used to create the planned department lists.
Which type of group should you recommend?
A. Universal Distribution
B. Dynamic Distribution
C. Global Security
D. Universal Security
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the technical requirements of the research and development (R&D) department. 70-398 pdf
Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new global address list (GAL) and a new address book policy.
B. Modify the permissions of the default global address list (GAL), and then create a new GAL.
C. Run the Update AddressList cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
E. Create an OAB virtual directory.
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 8
An administrator recommends removing EDGE1 from the implementation plan and adding a new Client Access server named CAS-8 instead.
You need to identify which anti-spam feature will NOT be available on CAS-8.
Which anti-spam feature should you identify?
A. Connection Filtering
B. Sender Filtering
C. Content Filtering
D. Recipient Filtering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have an on-premises Exchange 2010 organization. All clients use Outlook 2007 SP1. You enable online archive mailboxes in Exchange Online for several users.
The users are unable to access the online archive mailboxes in Microsoft Outlook.You need to ensure that users can access the online archive mailboxes in Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Apply Outlook 2007 SP2 and all related updates.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the users to the Global Administrators group.
C. Instruct the users to access the online archive mailboxes by using Outlook Web App.
D. Delete and recreate the users’ Outlook profiles.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online.
The company has mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external domains. 70-398 dumps
You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list.
Correct Answer: DF

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QUESTION 1
A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?
A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.
B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.
C. Configure large pool if not already done.
D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.
E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.
F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 2
You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use? 1z0-068 pdf
A. Database Replay
B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?
A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog
B. available archived redo log files
C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete
D. backups of tablespaces
E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy
Correct Answer: ACD
1Z0-068 dumps
QUESTION 4           1z0-068 dumps
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
Identify three scenarios in which RMAN will use backup sets to perform active database duplication. 1z0-068 pdf
A. when the duplicate … from active database command contains the section size clause
B. when you perform active database duplication on a database with flashback disabled
C. when you specify set encryption before the duplicate … from active database command
D. when the number of auxiliary channels allocated is equal to or greater than the number of target channels
E. when you perform active database duplication on a database that has read-onlytablespaces
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about recovering logically corrupted tables or table partitions from an RMAN backup?
A. Tables or table partitions can be recovered by using an auxiliary instance only.
B. Tables or table partitions with a foreign key cannot be recovered.
C. Tables or table partitions can be recovered only when the database is in mount state.
D. Tables or table partitions from the system and sysauxtablespaces cannot be recovered.
E. Tables with not null constraints cannot be recovered.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about dropping a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. A PDB must be in mount state or it must be unplugged.
B. The data files associated with a PDB are automatically removed from disk.
C. A dropped and unplugged PDB can be plugged back into the same multitenant container database (CDB) or other CDBs.
D. A PDB must be in closed state.
E. The backups associated with a PDB are removed.
F. A PDB must have been opened at least once after creation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
You created a database with DBCA by using one of the Oracle supplied templates. 1z0-068 dumps
Which is the default permanent tablespace for all users except DBSNMP and OUTLN?
A. USERS
B. SYSTEM
C. SYSAUX
D. EXAMPLE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
Which three types of failures are detected by the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA)? 1z0-068 pdf
A. loss of a non-critical data file
B. loss of a control file
C. physical data block corruption
D. logical data block corruption
E. loss of an archived redo log file
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?
A. Visibility of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is controlled by the row archival visibility session parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the database based on activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which two resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases (PDBs) when creating a multitenant container database (COB) plan using Oracle Database Resource Manager?
A. maximum undo per consumer group
B. maximum idle time for a session in a PDB
C. parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. maximum number of sessions for a PDB
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
You want to consolidate backup information and centrally manage backup and recovery scripts for multiple databases running in your organization.
Which two backup solutions can be used?
A. RMAN recovery catalog
B. RMAN Media Management Library
C. Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
D. Enterprise Manager Database Express
E. Oracle Secure Backup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:
1. Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.
2.Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.
How would you create these jobs?
A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler raised events.
B. Create both jobs using application raised events.
C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.
D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20. 1z0-068 dumps
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used
D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
A technician is preparing to activate the needed services in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to integrate with an IM and Presence server. Which four services must be enabled? (Choose four.) 210-060 pdf
A. Cisco TFTP
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco CTI Manager
D. Cisco Messaging Interface
E. Cisco Intercluster Lookup Service
F. Cisco Extended Functions
G. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
H. Cisco Directory Sync
Correct Answer: ABCG

QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-060 dumps
Which method is using the users to access their mailboxes? 210-060 dumps
A. web access
B. phone access
C. GUI access
D. VUI access
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting? 210-060 pdf
A. system > scheduler > CDR
B. system reports > unified CM data summary > generate report
C. system > tools > reports
D. tools > CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a report that Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not responding. The engineer needs to use RTMT to check errors. Which menu path should the engineer follow to install RTMT?
A. System Settings > Plugins > RTMT
B. Unified Communications Serviceability > Downloads > RTMT
C. Application > Plugins > RTMT
D. System > Plugins > RTMT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option would an administrator use to find all unassigned directory numbers in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Route plan report
B. CDR
C. CAR
D. Cisco Reporting Tool
E. Directory number lookup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection? 210-060 dumps
A. Port Monitor
B. Called Party Tracing
C. System Summary
D. Trace and Log Central
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
User A needs to have a line shared on the user B phone. Both phones register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which method can be used from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web pages to configure a shared line on the user B phone? 210-060 pdf
A. Navigate to the user B phone > Add the user A DN.
B. Navigate to the user B phone > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
C. Navigate to DN configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
D. Navigate to end user configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber. Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.) 210-060 dumps
A. Jabber Advanced Settings
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D. Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E. Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F. Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G. Jabber Version
Correct Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 1
Which change to the corporate Windows 7 client would prevent single sign-on to the infrastructure using the end user’s Active Directory account?
A. A Smart Card reader is installed to allow the end user to log on with an X509 certificate issued by the Active Directory Certificate Authority.
B. The workstation has the ‘Interactive login: Do not display last user name’ policy applied and enforced by Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. The native Windows Receiver is removed and end users can access the environment using the HTML Receiver through a web browser.
D. The Windows workstation is joined to a different domain than where the end user account resides, and the two domains are in the same forest.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option requires the fewest components to implement a fault-tolerant, load-balanced solution for enduser access at each datacenter?
A. Two StoreFront servers in a single StoreFront server group.
B. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to a single StoreFront server.
C. Three NetScalers in a cluster, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
D. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
Correct Answer: B
1Y0-401
QUESTION 3        1Y0-401 dumps
A Citrix Architect recommends that the SAP and Office Suite images be consolidated into a single image.
Which two factors helped guide the architect’s recommendation? (Choose two.)
A. A reduction in Hotfix testing time
B. CGE’s planned upgrade to Microsoft Office 2013
C. The use of both applications by all CGE end users
D. End-user complaints about slow application launch times
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which tool should a Citrix Architect use to collect session latency and bandwidth requirements for end users in the Jurong office?
A. HDX Monitor
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix EdgeSight
D. Citrix AppCenter Console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a multi-server Provisioning Services solution for CGE. The solution must be highly available and minimize the risk of vDisk inconsistency. 1Y0-401 vce
Why does implementing RAID 10 satisfy the requirements?
A. It provides striping and the highest performance.
B. It minimizes disk space and provides the highest performance.
C. It minimizes disk space and provides fault tolerance.
D. It provides fault tolerance and the highest performance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. 1Y0-401 dumps
How should the architect design the image management process using Windows Deployment Services?
A. Prepare an existing machine as the master image.
B. Install a new Windows image utilizing a XenServer virtual machine prepared as the master image, install the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA), and run SysPrep on the virtual machine.
C. Use a XenServer virtual machine to install a new Windows image with MAK prepared as the master image, and ensure the image has two network cards.
D. Run the Capture Image Wizard on an existing machine.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. 1Y0-401 pdf
Why is XenServer Fast Clone the best image management method for this environment?
A. It provides centralized image management.
B. It reduces machine-provisioning time.
C. It minimizes network traffic.
D. It improves image deployment consistency.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE has two StoreFront server groups. End users need to be able to roam between regions but keep their individual application subscriptions.
What should a Citrix Architect recommend to fulfill this requirement and keep management overhead to a minimum?
A. Configure all regions to be part of the same server group.
B. Configure a mandatory store in StoreFront to keep consistent application sets.
C. Copy the end-user subscription database between the server groups manually.
D. Configure scheduled subscription replication between server groups using PowerShell.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Machine Creation Services to facilitate image management?
A. By using Fast Clones
B. By using Machine Creation Services policies
C. By using snapshots
D. By using the Windows Automatic Install Kit (WAIK)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production.   1Y0-401 dumps
Why does using Provisioning Services and leveraging snapshots help manage the image versioning process?
A. It enables rollbacks.
B. It manages version control.
C. It leverages storage array features to offload host processing.
D. It automatically deploys the latest drivers and patches.
Correct Answer: D

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Lpi

[High Quality Lpi Dumps] 2017 Latest Lpi 101-400 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers, High Quality 101-400 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube

Latest Lpi LPIC-1 101-400 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 101-400 test, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. http://www.lead4pass.com/101-400.html Lpi LPIC-1 is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

QUESTION 1
After moving data to a new filesystem, how can the former path of the data be kept intact in order to avoid reconfiguration of existing applications? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. By creating an ACL redirection from the old to the new path of the data.
B. By creating a hard link from the old to the new path of the data.
C. By creating a symbolic link from the old to the new path of the data.
D. By running the command touch on the old path.
E. By mounting the new filesystem on the original path of the data.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE
101-400
QUESTION 3          101-400
In Bash, inserting 1>&2 after a command redirects
A. standard error to standard input.
B. standard input to standard error.
C. standard output to standard error.
D. standard error to standard output.
E. standard output to standard input.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands changes the number of days before the ext3 filesystem on /dev/sda1 has to run through a full filesystem check while booting?
A. tune2fs -d 200 /dev/sda1
B. tune2fs -c 200 /dev/sda1
C. tune2fs -i 200 /dev/sda1
D. tune2fs -n 200 /dev/sda1
E. tune2fs –days 200 /dev/sda1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands kills the process with the PID 123 but allows the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -PIPE 123
B. kill -KILL 123
C. kill -STOP 123
D. kill -TERM 123
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What is the effect of the egrep command when the -v option is used?
A. It enables color to highlight matching parts.
B. It only outputs non-matching lines.
C. It shows the command’s version information.
D. It changes the output order showing the last matching line first.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands will print the last 10 lines of a text file to the standard output?
A. cat -n 10 filename
B. dump -n 10 filename
C. head -n 10 filename
D. tail -n 10 filename
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following settings for umask ensures that new files have the default permissions -rw-r—– ?
A. 0017
B. 0640
C. 0038
D. 0027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands prints all files and directories within the /tmp directory or its subdirectories which are also owned by the user root? (Choose TWO correct answers.) 101-400
A. find /tmp -uid root -print
B. find -path /tmp -uid root
C. find /tmp -user root -print
D. find /tmp -user root
E. find -path /tmp -user root print
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
Correct Answer: D

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