[High Quality Cisco Dumps] The Best Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions Update Youtube Free Shared

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200-125 dumps
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New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
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R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. 200-125 dumps What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch ?(choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 34
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 38
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 40
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] How to Pass Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Update

How to pass Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam? High quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. Newest helpful Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco CCDP. The best and most updated latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam training resources in PDF format download free try. It is the best choice for you to pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily.

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300-115 dumps

Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
A. Both virtualswitch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection. Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. port-priority
B. cost
C. forward-timers
D. link type
E. root guard
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routersR1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP
priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRPgroup 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three statements are true of adefault HSRP configuration? 300-115 dumps (Choose three.)
A. The Standby hello time is 2 seconds.
B. Two HSRP groups are configured.
C. The Standby track interface priority decrement is 10.
D. The Standby hold time is 10 seconds
E. The Standby priority is 100.
F. The Standby delay is 3 seconds.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two.)
A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which option is the minimum frame size for an 802.1Q frame?
A. 64 bytes
B. 68 bytes
C. 1518 bytes
D. 1522 bytes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
After UDLD is implemented, a NetworkAdministrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?
A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remainup, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?
A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDMtemplates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hostsin one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users tomanage the flow of traffic handled by the
route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth? 300-115 dumps
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limitingthe spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
After anEtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state.
Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in theaddress table, and added to the running configuration?
A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)
300-115 dumps
A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. 300-115 dumps While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which four LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an Ether Channel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution andcore switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primarydevice for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting hasidentified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
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During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
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Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an Ether Channel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. 300-115 dumps Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100
on this router?
300-115 dumps
A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Cisco CCT Data Center 010-151 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Demo Update

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010-151 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?
A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, 010-151 dumps hosts, and clients?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
010-151 dumps
Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. 010-151 dumps
010-151 dumps
What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? 010-151 dumps (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?
A. 100 Mb/s
B. 1 Gb/s
C. 10 Gb/s
D. 100 Gb/s
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.
B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.
C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.
D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.
E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.
Correct Answer: AE

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210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?
A. View the alert on the IPS.
B. Review the IPS log.
C. Review the IPS console.
D. Use a third-party system to perform penetration testing.
E. Use a third-party to audit the next-generation firewall rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 6
In the router ospf 200 command, what does the value 200 stand for?
A. process ID
B. area ID
C. administrative distance value
D. ABR ID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the given configuration is true?
A. The single-connection command causes the device to establish one connection for all TACACS transactions.
B. The single-connection command causes the device to process one TACACS request and then move to the next server.
C. The timeout command causes the device to move to the next server after 20 seconds of TACACS inactivity.
D. The router communicates with the NAS on the default port, TCP 1645.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is example of social engineering
A. Gaining access to a building through an unlocked door.
B. something about inserting a random flash drive.
C. gaining access to server room by posing as IT
D. Watching other user put in username and password (something around there)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? 210-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?
A. It can extract and decode email attachments in client to server traffic.
B. It can look up the email sender.
C. It compares known threats to the email sender.
D. It can forward the SMTP traffic to an email filter server.
E. It uses the Traffic Anomaly Detector.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB

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Microsoft will provide smart tabs to Windows 10 app

Microsoft is credited with having established various different certification systems. Each of those certifications is for a specific area of IT expertise. Certifications such as these help establish the knowledge credentials of an IT professionals. The tabs in File Explorer are one of the most popular feature requests for Windows 10. Windows 10 testers will first begin testing what Microsoft calls “kits” in the coming weeks, and label integration will initially be limited to Windows 10’s special purpose generic Windows applications.

A refreshed look inspired by the Fluent Design System. The idea behind the label function is shown in the name. Collections are designed to group specific tasks together. However, Microsoft has some ambitious settings, not just the Windows desktop. Microsoft is planning to extend these tags to standard desktop applications such as File Explorer or Notepad and eventually to applications with custom title bars like Photoshop.
Microsoft
Office’s updated desktop version will be available early next year. Microsoft’s real challenge to the suite will be for developers to embrace them on the move, so applications can easily recover. This is not an easy solution, so I hope this experience was initially limited to Office and Edge Mobile.

Microsoft Edge for iOS and Android brings familiar features like your Favorites, Reading List, New Tab Page, Reading View, and Roaming Passwords across your PC and phone, so, no matter the device, your browsing goes with you. But what makes Microsoft Edge really stand out is the ability to continue on your PC, which enables you to immediately open the page you’re looking at right on your PC—or save it to work on later.
Microsoft
Like the timeline features of Windows 10, these features will be available to testers in the next release. The collection is designed to keep you on the move. By grouping tasks into these settings, Microsoft is working to get iPhone and Android users to launch settings and then recover them on the PC, and vice versa. This is a logical extension of Timeline that groups your applications together in a similar way so that you can recover them from your mobile device and from your PC. The new Performance/Power slider* lets you set the right balance between battery-life longevity and system performance and responsiveness.

The set’s experience also includes the Universal Search feature, and the new blank label is the same as the new label interface in the Microsoft Edge browser. Microsoft has resisted adding tabs to File Explorer and apps in general for years, after originally introducing tabs in Internet Explorer 6 with a toolbar extension back in 2005. That resistance is about to change, in a big way. Microsoft is planning to add tabs to apps in Windows 10, allowing you to group together apps in a better way.

Microsoft Edge can now read web pages, e-books, and other documents out loud to make reading accessible to more people. To hear an e-book or PDF out loud, click or tap anywhere on the page and select the “Read aloud” button from the top-right corner.
Microsoft
Microsoft basically extended Edge to the shell of all applications in Windows 10, a move that will trigger a lot of discussion. Microsoft ended the court with the U.S. Department of Justice in 2001, bundling Internet Explorer directly into Windows. Either way, computing and competition have changed a lot, and without some type of networking capability, the tabbed interface will not work effectively.

Microsoft is planning to open up labels to Windows 10 testers in the coming weeks and the company will initially test a small portion of its testers. The plan is for all Windows 10 testers to get specific feedback before looking through the new tabbed interface.

Reference: https://www.theverge.com/2017/11/28/16709190/microsoft-windows-10-tabs-file-explorer-sets-feature

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Exam Code: 070-489
Total Questions: 97 Q&As
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
You need to resolve the image loading issue.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the size of the site collection object cache to at least 100 MB.
B. Enable the binary large object (BLOB) cache on each front-end web server.
C. Activate the Content Organizer site feature.
D. Enable authenticated cache profiles for the site output cache.
E. Enable publishing features for the site collection.
F. Set the default device channel to the active channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? 070-489 dumps {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
You need to implement caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
You need to add code to line CM07 to create the Research Content document set.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the dropdown list in the answer area.)
070-489 dumps
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to configure filtering for the Product page.
Which filtering option should you use?
A. products/pages/products.aspx?productID=*&.productCategory=*
B. products.aspx;productID;productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
C. products; productID; productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
D. products/pages/products.aspx?*
E. productID;productCategory
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use? 070-489 dumps
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to implement logging.
Which items should you implement? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SPDiagnosticsServiceBase.WriteEvent
B. Microsoft.SharePoint.Diagnostics.ULSLogEntry
C. SPUser.Sid
D. PortalLog.LogString
E. SPAlertTemplate
F. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 12
You need to raise the visibility of the sites.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Reports and Data Search feature for the site collection.
B. Create a custom timer job that generates the SiteMap.xml file in the root directory of the web application.
C. Add a Script Editor Web Part to the landing page of the publishing site. In the web part, enter the location of the SiteMap.xml file.
D. In Internet Information Services (IIS), enable the SiteMap ISAPI filter for the web application.
E. Enable the Search Engine Sitemap Site Collection feature for the site collection.
Correct Answer: E

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 1
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions.
You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso\Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements. 70-414 dumps
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federation servers.
You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers.
Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2012
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You deploy a new standalone server named Server2. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server2.
Another administrator named Admin1 plans to create a replica of VM1 on Server2. You need to ensure that Admin1 can configure Server2 to receive a replica of VM1.
To which group should you add Admin1?
A. Server Operators
B. Domain Admins
C. Hyper-V Administrators
D. Replicator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that are connected to a SAS storage device. The device only supports two connected computers.
Server1 has the iSCSI Target Server role service installed. Ten application servers use their iSCSI Initiator to connect to virtual disks in the SAS storage device via iSCSI targets on Server1.
Currently, Server2 is used only to run backup software.
You install the iSCSI Target Server role service on Server2.
You need to ensure that the iSCSI targets are available if Server1 fails.
Which five actions should you perform?
To answer, move the five appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-414 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1 and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012.
Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin. 70-414 dumps
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A) record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1 and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are connected to a Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (SAN). Server1 and Server2 are members of a failover cluster named Cluster1.
You plan to host the clustered File Server role on the nodes in Cluster1. Cluster1 will store application databases in shared folders. You need to implement a storage solution for Cluster1. The solution must minimize the amount of time the shared folders are unavailable during a failover.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. An iSCSI Target Server cluster role in Cluster1
B. The Multi Path I/O (MPIO) feature on Server1 and Server2
C. A Virtual Fibre Channel SAN on Server1 and Server2
D. A Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) in Cluster1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. A web application named WebApp1 is installed on the 20 servers.
You plan to deploy a custom registry key for WebApp1 on the 20 servers. You need to deploy the registry key to the 20 servers. The solution must ensure that you can verify whether the registry key was applied successfully to the servers.
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From the Group Policy Management console, create a Group Policy object (GPO).
C. From Configuration Manager, create a Compliance Settings.
D. From Orchestrator Runbook Designer, create a runbook.
Correct Answer: C

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[High Quality Microsoft Dumps] High Quality Microsoft 70-694 Dumps PDF Resources And VCE Youtube Update Demo

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Exam Code: 70-694
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
70-694 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are a SharePoint administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
The company has 2,000 employees and 500 external users who work at the offices of various partner companies.
You plan to deploy SharePoint Server 2010 to host an intranet Web site, an extranet Web site, and a public Web site for the company.
You need to recommend a solution to grant partner company employees access to the extranet.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Forms-based authentication and Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS)
B. Forms-based authentication and the Application Layer Gateway Service (ALG)
C. Integrated Windows authentication and Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
D. Integrated Windows authentication and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1) server farm.
You plan to deploy a site for the sales department and a site for the finance department.
You identify the following search requirements for each site:
• Content on the finance site must be indexed once daily.
• Content on the sales site must be indexed every 15 minutes.
• Each site must have independent search keywords and synonyms.
You need to recommend a logical structure to meet the search requirements of each site.
What should you recommend?
A. One site collection, two sites, and two search scopes
B. Two sites collections, two sites, and two search scopes
C. Two sites collections, two sites, and two content sources
D. One site collection, two sites, and two content sources
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are a SharePoint administrator for Blue Yonder Airlines.
You plan to upgrade the Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 server farm to SharePoint Server 2010.
You need to recommend a solution for migrating all PerformancePoint 2007 objects to SharePoint Server 2010.
What should you include in the solution?
A. The Import PerformancePoint Server 2007 Content wizard
B. SharePoint Designer 2010
C. The Import Application Definition File wizard
D. PerformancePoint Dashboard Designer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You need to design a solution to ensure that all Web servers can access their databases if a single database server fails. Your solution must minimize costs.
What should you include in the solution?
A. failover clustering
B. Windows Network Load Balancing
C. hardware load balancing
D. SQL Server log shipping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1) server farm. The farm contains four front-end Web servers, two application servers, and a Microsoft SQL Server failover cluster. 70-694 dumps
You plan to deploy an enterprise monitoring solution for the farm.
You need to recommend a monitoring strategy to meet the following requirements:
• Generate reports that contain hardware utilization data.
• Generate alerts if specific URLs are unavailable.
• Provide a logical layout of the farm topology.
• Minimize cost.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 R3
B. the Unified Logging Service (ULS)
C. Performance Monitor
D. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007 R2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are a SharePoint administrator for Wide World Importers.
You need to recommend a solution to migrate all documents from the partner company to SharePoint-Farm.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Read-only databases
B. Information Rights Management (IRM)
C. Site Collection policies
D. Offline databases
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are planning the search infrastructure for your company.
You need to recommend a search solution to meet the following requirements:
• Users must be able to preview the documents returned in search results.
• Users must be able to refine search results by using custom properties.
• Users must be able to search the content of PDF files.
• The solution must be able to index 1 million documents.
• The solution must minimize upfront software costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Online
B. Microsoft FAST Search Server 2010 for SharePoint
C. Microsoft SharePoint Foundation 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1)
D. Microsoft SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a SharePoint Server 2010 server farm that contains two servers.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that both servers have a complete copy of the index.
What should you recommend?
A. Add a mirror query component
B. Add a new crawl database
C. Add a new crawl component
D. Add a new query component
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are a SharePoint administrator for Contoso, Ltd.
The company has 2,000 employees and 500 external users who work at the offices of various partner companies.
You plan to deploy SharePoint Server 2010 to host an intranet Web site, an extranet Web site, and a public Web site for the company.
You need to recommend a solution to provide unauthenticated users with the ability to submit content to document libraries on the public Web site.
What should you recommend?
A. an e-mail-enabled document library
B. a Content Organizer rule
C. a new service connection
D. an information management policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are planning the taxonomy of a SharePoint Server 2010 Service Pack 1 (SP1) server farm.
70-694 dumps You identify the following requirements:
• The legal department will require a list view threshold of 1,000 items.
• The accounting department will require a list view threshold of 2,000 items.
• The manufacturing department will require a list view threshold of 1,000 items.
You need to identify the minimum number of web applications and site collections that must be created to meet the requirements.
How many web applications and site collections should you identify?
A. Three web applications and three site collections
B. One web application and three site collections
C. Two web applications and two site collections
D. One web application and two site collections
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are a SharePoint administrator for Adventure Works.
You plan to deploy SharePoint Server 2010 to improve internal collaboration for the company. You also plan to use SharePoint Server 2010 as the platform for the company’s public Web site.
You need to recommend a solution to convert the catalogs.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Designer
B. InfoPath Forms Services
C. Word Automation Services
D. Access Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are a SharePoint administrator for Tailspin Toys.
The company has a main office. The main office is located in London.
The company has 1,000 employees and 1,000 customers.
You plan to create a product information Web site by using SharePoint technologies named www.tailspintoys.com.
You need to recommend a solution to display the company’s product information on the SharePoint Web site.
What should you include in the solution?
A. The Secure Store Service and the Business Connectivity Services
B. Access Services and the Application Registry Service
C. The User Profile Service and the Business Connectivity Services
D. The Application Registry Service and the Secure Store Service
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Update Latest Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps PDF Materials And Youtube

Latest updated Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps exam download for Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco 100-105 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html dumps exam training resources free download. Lead4pass offers best Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps exam questions and answers free try. Prepare for Cisco 100-105 exam with high quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides, pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets? 100-105 dumps
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN.
How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] High Quality Cisco 200-105 Dumps PDF Files And VCE Youtube Free Update

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which two advantages of an overlay network that consists of virtual switches on supervisors compare with those of physical networks? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to change the logical network topology more easily.
B. Ability to experience higher performance of traffic forwarding.
C. Overlay networks integrate with virtual machines more closely
D. They can support more routing protocols.
E. They are more secure.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You review a Cisco onePK-based application and you notice that the VTY Service Set is used to collect interface statistics. 200-105 dumps Which recommendation can you make to better leverage the programmatic capabilities of Cisco onePK?
A. Optimize the regular expression syntax.
B. Limit VTY Service Set usage to commands that return less than five lines of output.
C. Collect interface statistics using the native onePK APIs.
D. Always develop onePK-based application in multiple programming languages.
E. Use the Utility Service Set instead of the VTY Service Set.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
What is the minimum package that is required to develop a custom Cisco Unified Intelligence Center report for a Cisco Unified CCX deployment?
A. Cisco Unified CCX Premium
B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced
C. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Premium
D. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Standard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156? 200-105 dumps
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment, operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which option about QoS polices created by Cisco onePK policy service set is true?
A. Polices do not show up in device configuration and persist until the device is reloaded.
B. Policies do not show up in device configuration and are removed when onePK application sessions are disconnected.
C. Policies show up in device configuration and persist until the device is reloaded.
D. Policies show up in device configuration and are removed when onePK application sessions are disconnected.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design? 200-105 dumps
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If the client has equipment from multiple vendors in their network, which statement about the technologies that can be used is true?
A. Cisco onePK is a good candidate because it is vendor agnostic.
B. Cisco onePK is vendor-specific and therefore cannot control all the equipment.
C. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is vendor-specific.
D. OpenFlow is not a good candidate because it is only for Layer 2 switches.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In the Agile software development process, which two principles align with customer communications? (Choose two.)
A. Software releases are held until quality gates are met.
B. Co-location of business-focused individuals and developers for face-to-face conversation is best.
C. Key developers should have a proxy that intercepts rapidly changing requirements.
D. Customer requirements are fully collected before development ensues.
E. Changing requirements are welcome, even late in development.
Correct Answer: BE

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