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QUESTION 1
A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?
A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.
B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.
C. Configure large pool if not already done.
D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.
E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.
F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 2
You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use? 1z0-068 pdf
A. Database Replay
B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?
A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog
B. available archived redo log files
C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete
D. backups of tablespaces
E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy
Correct Answer: ACD
1Z0-068 dumps
QUESTION 4           1z0-068 dumps
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
Identify three scenarios in which RMAN will use backup sets to perform active database duplication. 1z0-068 pdf
A. when the duplicate … from active database command contains the section size clause
B. when you perform active database duplication on a database with flashback disabled
C. when you specify set encryption before the duplicate … from active database command
D. when the number of auxiliary channels allocated is equal to or greater than the number of target channels
E. when you perform active database duplication on a database that has read-onlytablespaces
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about recovering logically corrupted tables or table partitions from an RMAN backup?
A. Tables or table partitions can be recovered by using an auxiliary instance only.
B. Tables or table partitions with a foreign key cannot be recovered.
C. Tables or table partitions can be recovered only when the database is in mount state.
D. Tables or table partitions from the system and sysauxtablespaces cannot be recovered.
E. Tables with not null constraints cannot be recovered.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about dropping a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. A PDB must be in mount state or it must be unplugged.
B. The data files associated with a PDB are automatically removed from disk.
C. A dropped and unplugged PDB can be plugged back into the same multitenant container database (CDB) or other CDBs.
D. A PDB must be in closed state.
E. The backups associated with a PDB are removed.
F. A PDB must have been opened at least once after creation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
You created a database with DBCA by using one of the Oracle supplied templates. 1z0-068 dumps
Which is the default permanent tablespace for all users except DBSNMP and OUTLN?
A. USERS
B. SYSTEM
C. SYSAUX
D. EXAMPLE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
Which three types of failures are detected by the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA)? 1z0-068 pdf
A. loss of a non-critical data file
B. loss of a control file
C. physical data block corruption
D. logical data block corruption
E. loss of an archived redo log file
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?
A. Visibility of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is controlled by the row archival visibility session parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the database based on activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which two resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases (PDBs) when creating a multitenant container database (COB) plan using Oracle Database Resource Manager?
A. maximum undo per consumer group
B. maximum idle time for a session in a PDB
C. parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. maximum number of sessions for a PDB
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
You want to consolidate backup information and centrally manage backup and recovery scripts for multiple databases running in your organization.
Which two backup solutions can be used?
A. RMAN recovery catalog
B. RMAN Media Management Library
C. Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
D. Enterprise Manager Database Express
E. Oracle Secure Backup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:
1. Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.
2.Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.
How would you create these jobs?
A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler raised events.
B. Create both jobs using application raised events.
C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.
D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20. 1z0-068 dumps
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used
D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
Correct Answer: AB

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[High Quality VMware Dumps] 2017 Latest VMware 2V0-621D Dumps Exam Questions And Answers, The Best 2V0-621D Dumps PDF Materials And Youtube

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is upgrading a vCenter Server Appliance and wants to ensure that all the prerequisites are met.
What action must be taken before upgrading the vCenter Server Appliance?
A. Install the Client Integration Plug-in.
B. Install the database client.
C. Install the ODBC connector.
D. Install the Update Manager Plug-in.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What three supported methods can be used to upgrade a host from ESXi 5.x to ESXi 6.x? (Choose three.) 2V0-621D pdf
A. vSphere Update Manager
B. vihostupdate
C. esxcli
D. vSphere Auto Deploy
E. esxupdate
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621D dumps
An administrator is configuring a storage device as shown in the Exhibit.
What is the expected effect on the stated device after running the command? 2V0-621D dumps
A. I/O will rotate on all storage targets regardless of port group state.
B. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are Active Optimized state only.
C. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are Active Unoptimized state only.
D. I/O will rotate on all storage targets that are on Available Nodes only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621D dumps
An administrator has configured a vSphere 6.x DRS cluster as shown in the Exhibit. 2V0-621D pdf
Based on the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Test Resource Pool with a 6 GB Memory Reservation.
B. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Dev Resource Pool with a 8 GB Memory Reservation.
C. A virtual machine from both the Test Resource Pool and the Dev Resource Pool can be powered on with a 4 GB Memory Reservation.
D. No more virtual machines can be powered on due to insufficient resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which condition would cause a vCenter Server installation to fail when installing on a Windows virtual machine?
A. The virtual machine does not have at least four vCPUs.
B. The virtual machine is running Windows Server 2008.
C. The virtual machine has an E1000 network device.
D. The virtual machine does not have 16GB of RAM.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An administrator notices that the time on an ESXi 6.x host is incorrect.
Which two actions should the administrator take to correct this issue? (Choose two.) 2V0-621D dumps
A. Modify the time for the host using the vSphere client.
B. Correct the NTP settings in the /etc/ntp.conf file.
C. Configure NTP from the Direct Console User Interface.
D. Use the vicfg-ntp command from the vSphere Management Appliance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An administrator is able to manage an ESXi 6.x host connected to vCenter Server using the vSphere Web Client but is unable to connect to the host directly.
Which action should the administrator take to correct this behavior?
A. Restart management agents on the ESXi host.
B. Disable Lockdown Mode on the ESXi host through vCenter Server.
C. Disable the ESXi firewall with the command esxcli network firewall unload.
D. Reboot the ESXi host.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
An administrator wants to power on a virtual machine (VM) while connected to an ESXi host using SSH.
The VM has the following Name and ID:
VM Name = SQL001
VMID = 12345
Which command would successfully power on the virtual machine?
A. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
B. vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
C. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on 12345
D. vmware-vim-cmd vmsvc/power.on SQL001
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator is observing slow performance of the vCenter Inventory Service and observes the entries from the wrapper.log file:
Exception in thread “tomcat-exec-2” java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap spaceException in thread 2V0-621D pdf
“http-bio-0.0.0.0-10443-Acceptor-0” java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space
What should the administrator do to resolve the problem?
A. Increase the memory resources of the vCenter Server.
B. Increase the values using cloudvm-ram-size.
C. Increase the memory resouces of the Platform Services Controller.
D. Increase the wrapper.java.maxmemory value in wrapper.conf.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three troubleshooting actions should an administrator take to address slow performance when deploying a virtual machine template? (Choose three.) 2V0-621D dumps
A. Increase network throughput by adding additional uplinks to the vSwitch.
B. Change the destination datastore or volume for the virtual machine template.
C. Configure a Provisioning Traffic vmkernel port to perform the deployment operation.
D. Reduce the size of the virtual machine template’s virtual disk.
E. Deploy the virtual machine template to the cluster and allow Distributed Resource Scheduler to register the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 1
A technician is preparing to activate the needed services in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to integrate with an IM and Presence server. Which four services must be enabled? (Choose four.) 210-060 pdf
A. Cisco TFTP
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco CTI Manager
D. Cisco Messaging Interface
E. Cisco Intercluster Lookup Service
F. Cisco Extended Functions
G. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
H. Cisco Directory Sync
Correct Answer: ABCG

QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-060 dumps
Which method is using the users to access their mailboxes? 210-060 dumps
A. web access
B. phone access
C. GUI access
D. VUI access
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting? 210-060 pdf
A. system > scheduler > CDR
B. system reports > unified CM data summary > generate report
C. system > tools > reports
D. tools > CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a report that Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not responding. The engineer needs to use RTMT to check errors. Which menu path should the engineer follow to install RTMT?
A. System Settings > Plugins > RTMT
B. Unified Communications Serviceability > Downloads > RTMT
C. Application > Plugins > RTMT
D. System > Plugins > RTMT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option would an administrator use to find all unassigned directory numbers in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Route plan report
B. CDR
C. CAR
D. Cisco Reporting Tool
E. Directory number lookup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection? 210-060 dumps
A. Port Monitor
B. Called Party Tracing
C. System Summary
D. Trace and Log Central
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
User A needs to have a line shared on the user B phone. Both phones register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which method can be used from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web pages to configure a shared line on the user B phone? 210-060 pdf
A. Navigate to the user B phone > Add the user A DN.
B. Navigate to the user B phone > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
C. Navigate to DN configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
D. Navigate to end user configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber. Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.) 210-060 dumps
A. Jabber Advanced Settings
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D. Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E. Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F. Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G. Jabber Version
Correct Answer: ABC

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Question No : 1
Given the code fragment:
DataFormat df;
Which statement defines a new Dateformat object that displays the default date format for the UK Locale?
A. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
B. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, UK);
C. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
D. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
E. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
Answer: C

Explanation:
The UK locale is constructed with Locale.UK.
Example:
To format a date for a different Locale, specify it in the call to getDateInstance(). 1Z0-804 pdf DateFormat df = Date Format. get Date Instance (Date Format. LONG, Locale. FRANCE); Note: get Date Instance (int style, Locale aLocale)
Gets the date formatter with the given formatting style for the given locale.

Question No : 2
Sam has designed an application. It segregates tasks that are critical and executed frequently from tasks that are non critical and executed less frequently. He has prioritized these tasks based on their criticality and frequency of execution. After close scrutiny, he finds that the tasks designed to be non critical are rarely getting executed.
From what kind of problem is the application suffering?
A. race condition
B. starvation
C. deadlock
D. livelock
Answer: C

Explanation:
Starvation describes a situation where a thread is unable to gain regular access to shared resources and is unable to make progress. This happens when shared resources are made unavailable for long periods by “greedy” threads. For example, suppose an object provides a synchronized method that often takes a long time to return. If one thread invokes this method frequently, other threads that also need frequent synchronized access to the same object will often be blocked.
1Z0-804 dumps
Question No : 3           1Z0-804 dumps
Which two codes correctly represent a standard language locale code?
A. ES
B. FR
C. U8
D. Es
E. fr
F. u8
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Language codes are defined by ISO 639, an international standard that assigns two- and three-letter codes to 1Z0-804 pdf most languages of the world. Locale uses the two-letter codes to identify the target language.

Question No : 4
Which two code blocks correctly initialize a Locale variable?
A. Locale loc1 = “UK”;
B. Locale loc2 = Locale.getInstance(“ru”);
C. Locale loc3 = Locale.getLocaleFactory(“RU”);
D. Locale loc4 = Locale.UK;
E. Locale loc5 = new Locale(“ru”, “RU”);
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
D: The Locale class provides a number of convenient constants that you can use to create Locale objects for commonly used locales. For example, the following creates a Locale object for the United States:
Locale.US
E: Create a Locale object using the constructors in this class:
Locale(String language)
Locale(String language, String country)
Locale(String language, String country, String variant)

Question No : 5
Which statement declares a generic class?
A. public class Example < T >{ }
B. public class { }
C. public class Example <> { }
D. public class Example (Generic){ }
E. public class Example (G) { }
F. public class Example { }
Answer: A

Question No : 6
When using the default file system provider with a JVM running on a DOS-based file system, which statement is true?
A. DOS file attributes can be read as a set in a single method call.
B. DOS file attributes can be changed as a set in a single method call.
C. DOS file attributes can be modified for symbolic links and regular files.
D. DOS file attributes can be modified in the same method that creates the file.
Answer: A

Explanation:
File attributes associated with a file in a file 1Z0-804 dumps system that supports legacy

Question No : 7
Given this error message when running your application:
Exception in thread “main” java.util.MissingResourceException: Can’t find bundle for base name MessageBundle, locale
And given that the MessageBundle.properties file has been created, exists on your disk, and is properly formatted.
What is the cause of the error message?
A. The file is not in the environment path.
B. The file is not in the classpath.
C. The file is not in the javapath.
D. You cannot use a file to store a ResourceBundle.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Resource Bundle. get Bundle is using a resource name; it isn’t called Resource Bundle for 1Z0-804 pdf nothing. You can create a custom ClassLoader and use that to load the data.

Question No : 8
Given a language code of fr and a country code of FR, which file name represents a resource bundle file name that is not the default?
A. MessageBundle_fr_FR.properties
B. MessageBundle_fr_FR.profile
C. MessageBundle_fr_FR.xinl
D. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Java
E. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Locale
Answer: A

Explanation:
The default file is Message Bundle. properties.
The non-default file name is MessageBundle_fr_FR.properties
Note 0: .properties is a file extension for 1Z0-804 dumps files mainly used in Java related technologies to store the configurable parameters of an application. They can also be used for storing strings for Internationalization and localization; these are known as Property Resource Bundles.
Each parameter is stored as a pair of strings, one storing the name of the parameter (called the key), and the other storing the value.

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QUESTION 1
Which change to the corporate Windows 7 client would prevent single sign-on to the infrastructure using the end user’s Active Directory account?
A. A Smart Card reader is installed to allow the end user to log on with an X509 certificate issued by the Active Directory Certificate Authority.
B. The workstation has the ‘Interactive login: Do not display last user name’ policy applied and enforced by Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. The native Windows Receiver is removed and end users can access the environment using the HTML Receiver through a web browser.
D. The Windows workstation is joined to a different domain than where the end user account resides, and the two domains are in the same forest.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option requires the fewest components to implement a fault-tolerant, load-balanced solution for enduser access at each datacenter?
A. Two StoreFront servers in a single StoreFront server group.
B. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to a single StoreFront server.
C. Three NetScalers in a cluster, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
D. Two NetScalers in a high availability pair, with load balancing pointing to two StoreFront servers belonging to the same StoreFront server group.
Correct Answer: B
1Y0-401
QUESTION 3        1Y0-401 dumps
A Citrix Architect recommends that the SAP and Office Suite images be consolidated into a single image.
Which two factors helped guide the architect’s recommendation? (Choose two.)
A. A reduction in Hotfix testing time
B. CGE’s planned upgrade to Microsoft Office 2013
C. The use of both applications by all CGE end users
D. End-user complaints about slow application launch times
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which tool should a Citrix Architect use to collect session latency and bandwidth requirements for end users in the Jurong office?
A. HDX Monitor
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix EdgeSight
D. Citrix AppCenter Console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario:
A Citrix Architect is designing a multi-server Provisioning Services solution for CGE. The solution must be highly available and minimize the risk of vDisk inconsistency. 1Y0-401 vce
Why does implementing RAID 10 satisfy the requirements?
A. It provides striping and the highest performance.
B. It minimizes disk space and provides the highest performance.
C. It minimizes disk space and provides fault tolerance.
D. It provides fault tolerance and the highest performance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. 1Y0-401 dumps
How should the architect design the image management process using Windows Deployment Services?
A. Prepare an existing machine as the master image.
B. Install a new Windows image utilizing a XenServer virtual machine prepared as the master image, install the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA), and run SysPrep on the virtual machine.
C. Use a XenServer virtual machine to install a new Windows image with MAK prepared as the master image, and ensure the image has two network cards.
D. Run the Capture Image Wizard on an existing machine.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements. 1Y0-401 pdf
Why is XenServer Fast Clone the best image management method for this environment?
A. It provides centralized image management.
B. It reduces machine-provisioning time.
C. It minimizes network traffic.
D. It improves image deployment consistency.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE has two StoreFront server groups. End users need to be able to roam between regions but keep their individual application subscriptions.
What should a Citrix Architect recommend to fulfill this requirement and keep management overhead to a minimum?
A. Configure all regions to be part of the same server group.
B. Configure a mandatory store in StoreFront to keep consistent application sets.
C. Copy the end-user subscription database between the server groups manually.
D. Configure scheduled subscription replication between server groups using PowerShell.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Machine Creation Services to facilitate image management?
A. By using Fast Clones
B. By using Machine Creation Services policies
C. By using snapshots
D. By using the Windows Automatic Install Kit (WAIK)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production.   1Y0-401 dumps
Why does using Provisioning Services and leveraging snapshots help manage the image versioning process?
A. It enables rollbacks.
B. It manages version control.
C. It leverages storage array features to offload host processing.
D. It automatically deploys the latest drivers and patches.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
After moving data to a new filesystem, how can the former path of the data be kept intact in order to avoid reconfiguration of existing applications? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. By creating an ACL redirection from the old to the new path of the data.
B. By creating a hard link from the old to the new path of the data.
C. By creating a symbolic link from the old to the new path of the data.
D. By running the command touch on the old path.
E. By mounting the new filesystem on the original path of the data.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE
101-400
QUESTION 3          101-400
In Bash, inserting 1>&2 after a command redirects
A. standard error to standard input.
B. standard input to standard error.
C. standard output to standard error.
D. standard error to standard output.
E. standard output to standard input.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands changes the number of days before the ext3 filesystem on /dev/sda1 has to run through a full filesystem check while booting?
A. tune2fs -d 200 /dev/sda1
B. tune2fs -c 200 /dev/sda1
C. tune2fs -i 200 /dev/sda1
D. tune2fs -n 200 /dev/sda1
E. tune2fs –days 200 /dev/sda1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands kills the process with the PID 123 but allows the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -PIPE 123
B. kill -KILL 123
C. kill -STOP 123
D. kill -TERM 123
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What is the effect of the egrep command when the -v option is used?
A. It enables color to highlight matching parts.
B. It only outputs non-matching lines.
C. It shows the command’s version information.
D. It changes the output order showing the last matching line first.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands will print the last 10 lines of a text file to the standard output?
A. cat -n 10 filename
B. dump -n 10 filename
C. head -n 10 filename
D. tail -n 10 filename
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following settings for umask ensures that new files have the default permissions -rw-r—– ?
A. 0017
B. 0640
C. 0038
D. 0027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands prints all files and directories within the /tmp directory or its subdirectories which are also owned by the user root? (Choose TWO correct answers.) 101-400
A. find /tmp -uid root -print
B. find -path /tmp -uid root
C. find /tmp -user root -print
D. find /tmp -user root
E. find -path /tmp -user root print
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
Correct Answer: D

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The latest Microsoft 070-461 pdf practice questions and answers, pass Microsoft 070-461 exams test easily. Get latest Microsoft 070-461 exam dumps at best prices, try free demo. http://www.lead4pass.com/070-461.html Microsoft Business Intelligence is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.

Question No : 1
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application.
The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD ItemsInStore – ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemslnWarehouse);
Answer: A

Question No : 2
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.
070-461
You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do? 070-461
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Answer: D

Question No : 3
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: I

Question No : 4
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: E

Question No : 5
You have a view that was created by using the following code:
070-461
You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory, 070-461 which must meet the following requirements:
Accept the @T integer parameter.
Use one-part names to reference columns.
Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID.
Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461
Question No : 6
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.
The tables are related by a column named CustomerID.
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements:
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed.
Results must include customers who have not placed any orders.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
B. SELECT CustomerName, CrderDate
FROM Customers
JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
CROSS JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate
FROM Customers
LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID
Answer: D

Question No : 7
You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one another. 070-461
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
Answer: A

Question No : 9
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
Answer: B

Question No : 10
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database is used by two web applications that access a table named Products.
You want to create an object that will prevent the applications from accessing the table directly while still providing access to the required data. 070-461
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
Future modifications to the table definition will not affect the applications’ ability to access data.
The new object can accommodate data retrieval and data modification.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of changes to the existing applications.
What should you create for each application?
A. views
B. table partitions
C. table-valued functions
D. stored procedures
Answer: A

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