[High Quality Cisco Dumps] The Best Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions Update Youtube Free Shared

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200-125 dumps
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New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
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R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. 200-125 dumps What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch ?(choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 34
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 38
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 40
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Correct Answer: A

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[High Quality Cisco Dumps] How to Pass Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Update

How to pass Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam? High quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. Newest helpful Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.lead4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco CCDP. The best and most updated latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam training resources in PDF format download free try. It is the best choice for you to pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily.

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300-115 dumps

Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
A. Both virtualswitch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection. Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. port-priority
B. cost
C. forward-timers
D. link type
E. root guard
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routersR1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP
priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRPgroup 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three statements are true of adefault HSRP configuration? 300-115 dumps (Choose three.)
A. The Standby hello time is 2 seconds.
B. Two HSRP groups are configured.
C. The Standby track interface priority decrement is 10.
D. The Standby hold time is 10 seconds
E. The Standby priority is 100.
F. The Standby delay is 3 seconds.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two.)
A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which option is the minimum frame size for an 802.1Q frame?
A. 64 bytes
B. 68 bytes
C. 1518 bytes
D. 1522 bytes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
After UDLD is implemented, a NetworkAdministrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?
A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remainup, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?
A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDMtemplates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hostsin one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users tomanage the flow of traffic handled by the
route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth? 300-115 dumps
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limitingthe spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
After anEtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state.
Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in theaddress table, and added to the running configuration?
A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)
300-115 dumps
A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. 300-115 dumps While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which four LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an Ether Channel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution andcore switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primarydevice for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting hasidentified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
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During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
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Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an Ether Channel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. 300-115 dumps Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100
on this router?
300-115 dumps
A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

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LX0-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the difference between the –remove and the –purge action with the dpkg command?
A. –remove removes the program, –purge also removes the config files.
B. –remove only removes the program, –purge only removes the config files.
C. –remove removes a package, –purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. –remove removes only the package file itself, –purge removes all files related to the package.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to searching a particular number of subdirectories? LX0-101 dumps
A. –max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands will allow an administrator to adjust the number of mounts after which an existing filesystem will be checked by e2fsck?
A. debugfs
B. dumpe2fs
C. mode2fs
D. tune2fs
E. mke2fs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 9
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. LX0-101 dumps (Please provide the fill name with full path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 11
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16 lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow the process to “clean up” before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the administrator’s fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie “s/1/2/” /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n “Hello” >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Correct Answer: A

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010-151 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?
A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, 010-151 dumps hosts, and clients?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
010-151 dumps
Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. 010-151 dumps
010-151 dumps
What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? 010-151 dumps (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?
A. 100 Mb/s
B. 1 Gb/s
C. 10 Gb/s
D. 100 Gb/s
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.
B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.
C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.
D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.
E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.
Correct Answer: AE

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands is used to rotate, compress, and mail system logs?
A. rotatelog
B. striplog
C. syslogd –rotate
D. logrotate
E. logger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Depending on the host\’s configuration, which of the following files can be used to turn on and off network services running on a host? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. /etc/profile
B. /etc/services
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/xinetd.conf
E. /etc/host.conf
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands shows the current color depth of the X Server?
A. xcd
B. xcdepth
C. xwininfo
D. xcolordepth
E. cat /etc/X11
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system? LX0-104 dumps
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the dig command?
A. It can be used as a tool for querying DNS servers.
B. It can be used for searching through indexed file content.
C. It can be used to look for open ports on a system.
D. It can be used to ping all known hosts on the current subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
In order to discover the link layer address of the device that owns a specific IPv4 or IPv6 address, which mechanism is used?
A. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use ARP.
B. Both IPv4 and IPv6 use Neighbor Discovery.
C. IPv4 uses ARP while IPv6 uses Neighbor Discovery.
D. IPv4 uses Neighbor Discovery while IPv6 uses ARP.
E. Both IPv4 and IPv6 can use either ARP or Neighbor Discovery depending on the network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? LX0-104 dumps (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Postfix
B. Procmail
C. Sendmail
D. Exim
E. SMTPd
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To prevent a specific user from scheduling tasks with at, what should the administrator do?
A. Add the specific user to /etc/at.allow file.
B. Add the specific user to [deny] section in the /etc/atd.conf file.
C. Add the specific user to /etc/at.deny file.
D. Add the specific user to nojobs group.
E. Run the following: atd –deny [user].
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
How many bits make up an IPv6 address? LX0-104 dumps
A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which command will set the local machine\’s timezone to UTC?
A. cat UTC andgt; /etc/timezone
B. ln -s /usr/share/zoneinfo/UTC /etc/localtime
C. date –timezone=UTC
D. mv /usr/timezone/UTC /etc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is true regarding public and private SSH keys? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Several different public keys may be generated for the same private key.
B. The private key must never be revealed to anyone.
C. For each user account, there is exactly one key pair that can be used to log into that account.
D. To maintain the private key\’s confidentiality, the SSH key pair must be created by its owner.
E. To allow remote logins, the user\’s private key must be copied to the remote server.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is true regarding the mail queue of a mail server? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The messages in the queue must be readable by all users as the queue may contain messages for several users.
B. According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS) the queue is located at /var/mail/spool.
C. There is exactly one mail queue per user which holds all new messages for that user before they are moved to other folders by the user\’s mail client.
D. The queue holds all messages that are processed by the mail server but have not yet been completely delivered.
E. The content of the mail queue can be queried by the command mailq.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
For accessibility assistance, which of the following programs is an on-screen keyboard?
A. xkb
B. atkb
C. GOK
D. xOSK
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following fields can be found in the /etc/group file? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. The list of users that belong to the group.
B. The home directory of the group.
C. The name of the group.
D. The description of the group.
E. The password of the group.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 23
Given the following routing table
Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 192.168.178.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 9 0 0 wlan0
Why does the command route add default gw 192.168.1.1 fail?
A. Because there is no route to 192.168.1.1.
B. Because only one route can exist at a time.
C. Because there is already a default route.
D. Because default routes can not be set manually.
E. Because default routes must be set with ifconfig.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is observed and corrected by a NTP client? LX0-104 dumps
A. The skew in time between the system clock and the hardware clock.
B. The skew in time between the system clock and the reference clock.
C. Changes in the time zone of the current computer\’s location.
D. Adjustments needed to support Daylight Saving Time.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which command makes the shell variable named VARIABLE visible to subshells?
A. export $VARIABLE
B. export VARIABLE
C. set $VARIABLE
D. set VARIABLE
E. env VARIABLE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do shadow passwords improve the password security in comparison to standard passwd passwords?
A. Shadow passwords are stored in plain text and can be checked for weak passwords.
B. Every shadow password is valid for 45 days and must be changed afterwards.
C. The system\’s host key is used to strongly encrypt all shadow passwords.
D. Shadow passwords are always combined with a public key that has to match the user\’s private key.
E. Regular users do not have access to the password hashes of shadow passwords.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What output will the command seq 10 produce?
A. A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B. The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C. The numbers 0 through 9 with one number per line.
D. The number 10 to standard output.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
What is true regarding the file ~/.forward?
A. As it is owned by the MTA and not writable by the user, it must be edited using the editaliases command.
B. After editing ~/.forward the user must run newaliases to make the mail server aware of the changes.
C. Using ~/.forward, root may configure any email address whereas all other users may configure only their own addresses.
D. When configured correctly, ~/.forward can be used to forward each incoming mail to more than one other recipient.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
What is NTP?
A. A more secure protocol replacement for FTP.
B. A protocol for synchronizing time on computers.
C. A routing aid for finding next hops on a network.
D. A simple tunnelling protocol for computers behind firewalls.
Correct Answer: B

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1Y0-351 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address.
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access? 1Y0-351 dumps
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. 1Y0-351 dumps The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site.
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for secured web traffic that does NOT terminate at the NetScaler device.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Source IP
B. Cookie Insert
C. URL Passive
D. SRCIPDESTIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has two sites that host six cache web servers that are used to promote sales information.
Which feature on the NetScaler should an engineer enable to provide faster application performance and also provide additional capacity if the demand increases for one site?
A. Load balancing
B. Integrated Cache
C. Responder Policy
D. Content switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. 1Y0-351 dumps The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B

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210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?
A. View the alert on the IPS.
B. Review the IPS log.
C. Review the IPS console.
D. Use a third-party system to perform penetration testing.
E. Use a third-party to audit the next-generation firewall rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?
A. It forwards email requests to an external signature engine.
B. It scans inbound email messages for known bad URLs.
C. It sends the traffic through a file policy.
D. It sends an alert to the administrator to verify suspicious email messages.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.
B. They cannot track connections.
C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.
D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.
E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 6
In the router ospf 200 command, what does the value 200 stand for?
A. process ID
B. area ID
C. administrative distance value
D. ABR ID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the given configuration is true?
A. The single-connection command causes the device to establish one connection for all TACACS transactions.
B. The single-connection command causes the device to process one TACACS request and then move to the next server.
C. The timeout command causes the device to move to the next server after 20 seconds of TACACS inactivity.
D. The router communicates with the NAS on the default port, TCP 1645.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is example of social engineering
A. Gaining access to a building through an unlocked door.
B. something about inserting a random flash drive.
C. gaining access to server room by posing as IT
D. Watching other user put in username and password (something around there)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? 210-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.
D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?
A. It can extract and decode email attachments in client to server traffic.
B. It can look up the email sender.
C. It compares known threats to the email sender.
D. It can forward the SMTP traffic to an email filter server.
E. It uses the Traffic Anomaly Detector.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS device within the infrastructure?
A. Inline, behind the internet router and firewall
B. Inline, before the internet router and firewall
C. Promiscuously, after the Internet router and before the firewall
D. Promiscuously, before the Internet router and the firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB

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Microsoft will provide smart tabs to Windows 10 app

Microsoft is credited with having established various different certification systems. Each of those certifications is for a specific area of IT expertise. Certifications such as these help establish the knowledge credentials of an IT professionals. The tabs in File Explorer are one of the most popular feature requests for Windows 10. Windows 10 testers will first begin testing what Microsoft calls “kits” in the coming weeks, and label integration will initially be limited to Windows 10’s special purpose generic Windows applications.

A refreshed look inspired by the Fluent Design System. The idea behind the label function is shown in the name. Collections are designed to group specific tasks together. However, Microsoft has some ambitious settings, not just the Windows desktop. Microsoft is planning to extend these tags to standard desktop applications such as File Explorer or Notepad and eventually to applications with custom title bars like Photoshop.
Microsoft
Office’s updated desktop version will be available early next year. Microsoft’s real challenge to the suite will be for developers to embrace them on the move, so applications can easily recover. This is not an easy solution, so I hope this experience was initially limited to Office and Edge Mobile.

Microsoft Edge for iOS and Android brings familiar features like your Favorites, Reading List, New Tab Page, Reading View, and Roaming Passwords across your PC and phone, so, no matter the device, your browsing goes with you. But what makes Microsoft Edge really stand out is the ability to continue on your PC, which enables you to immediately open the page you’re looking at right on your PC—or save it to work on later.
Microsoft
Like the timeline features of Windows 10, these features will be available to testers in the next release. The collection is designed to keep you on the move. By grouping tasks into these settings, Microsoft is working to get iPhone and Android users to launch settings and then recover them on the PC, and vice versa. This is a logical extension of Timeline that groups your applications together in a similar way so that you can recover them from your mobile device and from your PC. The new Performance/Power slider* lets you set the right balance between battery-life longevity and system performance and responsiveness.

The set’s experience also includes the Universal Search feature, and the new blank label is the same as the new label interface in the Microsoft Edge browser. Microsoft has resisted adding tabs to File Explorer and apps in general for years, after originally introducing tabs in Internet Explorer 6 with a toolbar extension back in 2005. That resistance is about to change, in a big way. Microsoft is planning to add tabs to apps in Windows 10, allowing you to group together apps in a better way.

Microsoft Edge can now read web pages, e-books, and other documents out loud to make reading accessible to more people. To hear an e-book or PDF out loud, click or tap anywhere on the page and select the “Read aloud” button from the top-right corner.
Microsoft
Microsoft basically extended Edge to the shell of all applications in Windows 10, a move that will trigger a lot of discussion. Microsoft ended the court with the U.S. Department of Justice in 2001, bundling Internet Explorer directly into Windows. Either way, computing and competition have changed a lot, and without some type of networking capability, the tabbed interface will not work effectively.

Microsoft is planning to open up labels to Windows 10 testers in the coming weeks and the company will initially test a small portion of its testers. The plan is for all Windows 10 testers to get specific feedback before looking through the new tabbed interface.

Reference: https://www.theverge.com/2017/11/28/16709190/microsoft-windows-10-tabs-file-explorer-sets-feature

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Exam Code: 070-489
Total Questions: 97 Q&As
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
You need to resolve the image loading issue.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the size of the site collection object cache to at least 100 MB.
B. Enable the binary large object (BLOB) cache on each front-end web server.
C. Activate the Content Organizer site feature.
D. Enable authenticated cache profiles for the site output cache.
E. Enable publishing features for the site collection.
F. Set the default device channel to the active channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? 070-489 dumps {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
You need to implement caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
You need to add code to line CM07 to create the Research Content document set.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the dropdown list in the answer area.)
070-489 dumps
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to configure filtering for the Product page.
Which filtering option should you use?
A. products/pages/products.aspx?productID=*&.productCategory=*
B. products.aspx;productID;productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
C. products; productID; productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
D. products/pages/products.aspx?*
E. productID;productCategory
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use? 070-489 dumps
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to implement logging.
Which items should you implement? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SPDiagnosticsServiceBase.WriteEvent
B. Microsoft.SharePoint.Diagnostics.ULSLogEntry
C. SPUser.Sid
D. PortalLog.LogString
E. SPAlertTemplate
F. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 12
You need to raise the visibility of the sites.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Reports and Data Search feature for the site collection.
B. Create a custom timer job that generates the SiteMap.xml file in the root directory of the web application.
C. Add a Script Editor Web Part to the landing page of the publishing site. In the web part, enter the location of the SiteMap.xml file.
D. In Internet Information Services (IIS), enable the SiteMap ISAPI filter for the web application.
E. Enable the Search Engine Sitemap Site Collection feature for the site collection.
Correct Answer: E

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-414
Total Questions: 243 Q&As
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 1
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions.
You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso\Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements. 70-414 dumps
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federation servers.
You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers.
Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2012
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You deploy a new standalone server named Server2. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server2.
Another administrator named Admin1 plans to create a replica of VM1 on Server2. You need to ensure that Admin1 can configure Server2 to receive a replica of VM1.
To which group should you add Admin1?
A. Server Operators
B. Domain Admins
C. Hyper-V Administrators
D. Replicator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Your network contains servers that run Windows Server 2012. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that are connected to a SAS storage device. The device only supports two connected computers.
Server1 has the iSCSI Target Server role service installed. Ten application servers use their iSCSI Initiator to connect to virtual disks in the SAS storage device via iSCSI targets on Server1.
Currently, Server2 is used only to run backup software.
You install the iSCSI Target Server role service on Server2.
You need to ensure that the iSCSI targets are available if Server1 fails.
Which five actions should you perform?
To answer, move the five appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-414 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1 and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012.
Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin. 70-414 dumps
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A) record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1 and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are connected to a Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (SAN). Server1 and Server2 are members of a failover cluster named Cluster1.
You plan to host the clustered File Server role on the nodes in Cluster1. Cluster1 will store application databases in shared folders. You need to implement a storage solution for Cluster1. The solution must minimize the amount of time the shared folders are unavailable during a failover.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. An iSCSI Target Server cluster role in Cluster1
B. The Multi Path I/O (MPIO) feature on Server1 and Server2
C. A Virtual Fibre Channel SAN on Server1 and Server2
D. A Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) in Cluster1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. A web application named WebApp1 is installed on the 20 servers.
You plan to deploy a custom registry key for WebApp1 on the 20 servers. You need to deploy the registry key to the 20 servers. The solution must ensure that you can verify whether the registry key was applied successfully to the servers.
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From the Group Policy Management console, create a Group Policy object (GPO).
C. From Configuration Manager, create a Compliance Settings.
D. From Orchestrator Runbook Designer, create a runbook.
Correct Answer: C

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